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IBPS PO Prelims Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 20th August 2019

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IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude Quiz

With the increasing level in exams, quantitative aptitude has become the ineluctable hitch. Generally, questions asked in this section are calculative and lengthy that consumes your time. This subject can do wonders if you always keep a check on your accuracy, speed and time. Accuracy is what matters the most. To help you prepare the section we have provided a well-defined IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan. You can also Prepare from the study notes to clear your basic concepts. Attempt this quantitative aptitude quiz and check your performance for the upcoming IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan 2019. Following is the quiz of 20th August, that inculcate the important topic from time and work.

Q1. Vikas can do a piece of work in 40 days. Kunal is 20% less efficient than Vikas. Find in how much time work will be completed, if they work together.
Q2. The efficiency ratio of Yuvraj& Pradeep is 8 : 5. Pradeep and Pooja together can complete a piece of work in 24 days while Pooja alone can complete the same work in 60 days, then in how many days Yuvraj alone can complete the same work?
(a) 30 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 36 days
(d) 40 days
(e) 18 days

Q3. Rahul is 25% more efficient than Ravi and Ravi is 20% less efficient than Rekha. If Rekha completes a job in 20 days, then in how many days Rahul will complete the same job? 
(a) 25
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 20
(e) 28

Q4. Himanshu and Kapil can complete a piece of work in 18 days and 24 days respectively. Himanshu and Kapil worked together for 6 days and then Himanshu left the work. If the remaining work completed by Kapil and Rekha in 4 days, then Rekha alone can complete the same piece of work in how many days?
(a) 16 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 24 days
(e) 30 days

Q5. 24 workers working 8 hours a day can complete a work in 12 days. If they work for 6 hours a day, then find how many more workers are required to complete the work in same time.
(a) 12 
(b) 16
(c) 8
(d) 6 
(e) 10

Q6. 18 Men can complete a project in 30 days and 16 women can complete the same project in 36 days. 15 men start working and after 9 days they are replaced by 18 women. In how many days will 18 women complete the remaining work? 
(a) 20 
(b) 30
(c) 26 
(d) 28
(e) 24 

Q7. P and Q together can finish a work in 15 days. P and R take 2 days more to complete the same work than Q and  R. P, Q and R can complete the work in 8  days. In how many days P can finish it separately?
(a) 40
(b) 24
(c) 120/7
(d) 20 
(e) 30

Q8. If 3 men or 9 boys can finish a piece of work in 21 days. In how many days can 5 men and 6 boys can complete the same piece of work?
(a) 12 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 10 days
(e) 9 days

Q9. Ayush can do a work in 40 days and Rahul is 25% more efficient than Ayush. If Ayush started and worked for 15 days and left then in how many days will Rahul do the remaining work? 
(a) 16 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 24 days
(e) 12 days

Q10. Abhi, Roly and Bitu can complete a work in 60 days working together. If Abhi and Bitu together are twice efficient than Roly and Abhi and Roly together are thrice efficient than Bitu then in how many days can Abhi alone complete the work?
(a) 120 days
(b) 96 days
(c) 84 days
(d) 144 days
(e) 110 days

Q11. 8 men can complete a work in 4 days. 6 women can complete the same work in 6 days. 4 men & 6 women started the work & worked for only 2 days then, how many women are required to complete the remaining work in one day? 
(a) 20 women
(b) 22 women 
(c) 15 women
(d) 10 women
(e) 12 women 

Q12. A, B and C can do a work in 8, 16 and 24 days respectively. They all begin together. A continues to work till it is finished, C leaving off 2 days and B one day before its completion. In what time is the work finished?
(a) 3 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 8 days 
(e) 6 days

Q13. A starts working on a job and continues for 12 days completing 40% of the work. To complete the work, he employs C. Together they work for another 12 days and completed it. How much more efficient is A than C ?
(a) 75
(b) 150
(c) 100
(d) 50
(e) Both are equally efficient

Q14. A alone would take 27 hours more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he took 3 hours more to complete the job than A and B worked together. What time, would they take if both A and B worked together?
(a) 8 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 6 hours
(e) 7 hours

Q15. A man P can complete a work in 48 days alone. Another man Q has working efficiency three times of P. They started working together. After working for 3 days P leaves and another person R whose efficiency is two times that of P joins Q. In how many days the remaining work will be completed?
(a) 8.8 days
(b) 7.2 days
(c) 5.6 days
(d) 4.8 days
(e) None of these

Solutions









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Nainital Bank SO/PO/Clerk 2019: Preparation Tips

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Nainital Bank SO/PO/Clerk 2019: Preparation Tips

Nainital Bank PO/SO/Clerk exam is scheduled to be held on 24th and 25th of August according to the official notification released. You can check the Frequently asked questions to clear your doubts regarding the same. Refer to the Nainital bank exam patternbefore you appear for the exam. If you are looking for a good start in the banking sector, yes this opportunity is for you. For a banking aspirant, it is essential to perform smart work. Leaving a thousand serious aspirant behind and securing a seat for oneself is no easy task. As the exam is around the corner now, you all must be looking for some preparation strategy to give the final touch to your preparation. This is going to be a very tough fight as students are very well prepared and engrossed with knowledge. We can not deny the fact that banking examination takes the aspirants through emotional turmoil a few days before the exam. What should one do at this point in time? Practicing what you have revised could be a savior for you. Do not feel unladen to avoid the exam stress and give the best of your attempt in this exam. Again, to help you out with your preparation, Adda247 is providing you with the Nainital bank SO/PO/Clerk: Preparation tips so that you can ace in this exam.

Nainital Bank SO/PO/Clerk: Preparation Tips

Revision Tips:
  • Do Not start anything new at this point in time. It will do no good for you. Revise all that you have prepared so far.
  • Make sure you revise all the formulas and the trick to compute them. It will save your time during the exam.
  • Practice miscellaneous exercise. This will help you revise all the subjects and rules.
  • Give mock papers, This will help you analyze your performance and you will be able to work on your weak points.
  • Learn from your past mistakes. And try not to repeat them in this or in any other upcoming exams.
Section-wise strategy For Nainital Bank SO/PO/Clerk

English section:
  • The trick to scoring in this section is to attempt the miscellaneous part like fillers, Error detection, sentence arrangement, etc.
  • If you are good at reading, Attempt Reading comprehension first. This will help you fetch at least 6-7 marks depending on the marking schemes.\
  • Practice different types of question on Adda247 app and analyze your daily performance.
  • Keep in mind, accuracy is the foremost factor to sail in any exam.

Quantitative aptitude:
  • This section can do wonders if practiced well. This section requires continues practice to be very good the Arithmetic and DI part.
  • The key to scoring good marks is to attempt the different types of questions on Adda247 app.
  • Try to solve questions on Simplification and approximation, number series, Quadratic equation as these topics will grapple more marks in the minimum of time.
  • If you are good at solving DI and good at topics like profit and loss, percentage, etc, attempt DI first.
  • Keep practicing. This is all you need to clear the exam.

Reasoning Ability:
  • This section tests your mental ability to tackle the question in a minimum of time.
  • If you have practiced well all the topics, it will fetch you more marks. All you need to manage your time so that you can solve the maximum number of questions.
  • Start with the questions that are not in the form of puzzles, you can choose to start with questions based on inequalities, direction and distance, syllogism, coding-decoding, alphanumeric series, and other such random topics. 
  • If you are good at the puzzle, go for it, as puzzle carries the maximum marks in the reasoning section. There will be 3-4 puzzles of easy to moderate level.

IBPS PO Reasoning Ability Quiz: 20th August

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Dear Aspirants,
ibps-po-reasoning-quiz

IBPS PO Reasoning Quiz

The reasoning being the scoring part can enhance your performance as a whole. All you need to do is clear your basics and be aware of the syllabus of the particular exam you are preparing for. Study Notes for the topics like Puzzles, Coding-decoding, sitting arrangement, blood relations, and the list is long is provided on Adda247, so that you can make the preparation time fun by cracking the logic that runs the engine of a particular topic. Giving mocks and Quizzes on a regular basis will help you to decode the strategy. Also, the Study Plans go hand in hand with the exam preparations that will take place in the upcoming months. Like the IBPS PO Prelims are scheduled in the month of October and we already rolled the study plan 'Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATAH' for your aid. Under the same plan, here is the Quiz for Reasoning, to make sure that you don't skip any important topic as well as be prepared to face any type of questions in the prelims. IBPS PO Reasoning Quiz of 20th August 2019 covers the topic Puzzles.

Directions (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

Eight persons E, F, G, H, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners facing towards center and like some fruits, and rest four who sits at the middle of the side, are facing outside and likes some colours. One of the person in the group likes blue colour. Only two persons sit between G and P who like yellow colour. The one who likes grapes sits third to the left of the one who likes green colour. E likes apple and sits second to the right of the one who sits third to the left of Q. The one who likes grapes is not an immediate neighbour of P. The one who likes white colour sits immediate right of the one who likes banana. Q does not like green colour. H sits second to the left to the one who likes Guava who sits third to the right of S. R likes a colour.  

Q1. Who sits exactly between the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes banana and F?
(a) S
(b) G
(c) the one who likes yellow colour
(d) H
(e) the one who likes blue colour

Q2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so from a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) E
(b) S
(c) The one who likes guava
(d) The one who likes grapes
(e) G

Q3. What is the position of R with respect to the one who likes white colour?
(a) Third to the left
(b) Immediate right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Immediate left

Q4. How many persons sit between H and the one who likes guava when counted right from H? 
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

Q5. Who sits opposite to the one who likes green colour?
(a) The one who likes white colour
(b) E
(c) The one who likes yellow colour
(d) R
(e) F

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing 5 person each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 U, W, X, Y and Z are sitting and all of them are facing South. In row-2 F, G, H, J and K are sitting and all of them are facing North. Therefore, each person sits in a row faces another person of other row. 

G sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of the one who sits third to the right of Y. Only one person sits between G and J. X sits second to the right of Z. J faces neither X nor Z. K sits second to the left of H and he does not sit at any of the extreme ends. F is not an immediate neighbour of K. W faces neither K nor J.

Q6. Who among the following sits opposite to U?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) F
(d) H
(e) None of these

Q7. Who among the following sits second to the right of W?
(a) Z
(b) U
(c) Y
(d) X
(e) None of these

Q8. Four of the following five belong to a group in a certain way, find which of the one does not belong to that group?
(a) X
(b) H
(c) Y
(d) F
(e) U

Q9. How many persons sit between K and F?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) None of these

Q10. What is the position of H with respect to J?
(a) Third to the left
(b) immediate right
(c) second to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Fourth to the right

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Seven players P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are playing three different sports viz. Football, Basketball and Volleyball, but not necessarily in the same order. At-least one and not more than three players among them play same sport. Each of them goes to a tournament to play sport in a week starting from Monday to Sunday. 

Q plays Basketball with X and he goes to tournament immediately before P. S goes to tournament on Monday and he plays with neither R nor Q. R goes to tournament immediately after X and immediately before Q. The one who goes to tournament on Wednesday plays Volleyball. The one who goes to tournament on Tuesday does not play with Q. Z does not play either Basketball or Volleyball. P plays Football with R.

Q11. Which of the following sport S plays?
(a) Football
(b) Volleyball
(c) Basketball
(d) Either (a) or (b)
(e) Data inadequate

Q12. On which of the following day X plays?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Saturday
(d) Thursday
(e) None of these

Q13. Who among the following Plays on Friday?
(a) Q
(b) R
(c) P
(d) Y
(e) None of these

Q14. Which of the following combination is true?
(a) Z - Wednesday
(b) Y- Football
(c) P - Saturday
(d) Z - Football
(e) Saturday- Volleyball

Q15. Which of the following pair play football?
(a) P, R, Y
(b) Z, Y
(c) P, R, Z
(d) S, R
(e) S, P, Z

Solutions 

Solutions (1-5):

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. 

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. 

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

Solutions (6-10):

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. 

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. 

S8. Ans.(e)
Sol.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. 

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

Solutions (11-15):
S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. 

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. 

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. 

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. 





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IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz: 20th August 2019

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Dear Aspirants,

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IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz

With the increased competition in the field of banking examinations, it has now become very important to cover up all the sections efficiently. One subject that can help you bagging graceful marks in the minimum time in these examinations is Banking Awareness. Banking Awareness Quiz not only helps you deal with the General Awareness Section of Banking Exams but also, the Personal Interview round of Banking Recruitment.

Q1. Financial Literacy Week 2019 has been observed from 03rd to 07th June on the theme of ________________ and how they benefit by being a part of the formal banking system. 
(a) Farmers 
(b) Students
(c) Leaders
(d) Education
(e) Care 

Q2. The RBI has slapped a penalty of Rs _____________ on Kotak Mahindra Bank for the non-state lender’s failure to adhere to the regulator’s diktat on promoter shareholding.
(a) Rs. 15 crores
(b) Rs. 2 crores 
(c) Rs. 10 crores
(d) Rs. 5 crores
(e) Rs. 25 crores

Q3. Based on the recommendations of the Committee on Currency Movement (CCM), the Reserve Bank has directed banks to ensure their ATMs are grouted to a wall, pillar, or floor by September-end. The committee to review the entire gamut of security of treasure in transit is chaired by-?
(a) R Gandhi
(b) Usha Thorat
(c) DK Mohanty 
(d) Nachiket Mor
(e) Harun Rashid Khan

Q4. The Jammu and Kashmir Bank will now come under the purview of Right to Information Act and Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) guidelines. Who is present Interim Chairman and Managing Director of Jammu and Kashmir Bank?
(a) Sanjiv Agarwal
(b) Anil Kumar Misra
(c) Dhaman Kumar Pandoh 
(d) RK Chhibber 
(e) Mohammad Ashraf Mir

Q5. Reserve Bank fined country’s largest private sector lender HDFC Bank Rs _____________ for not reporting frauds and non-compliance with other directions.
(a) Rs. 100 crores
(b) Rs. 6 crores
(c) Rs. 15 crores
(d) Rs. 5 crores
(e) Rs. 1 crore 

Q6. Jammu and Kashmir Bank is a J&K-based private sector banking and financial services company. In which year J&K Bank was incorporated?
(a) 1949
(b) 1956
(c) 1921
(d) 1952
(e) 1938 

Q7. HDFC Bank Limited is an Indian banking and financial services company headquartered in-?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Pune
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai 
(e) Jaipur

Q8. _________________ customers can deposit cash of up to Rs 50,000 for free only thrice a month from 01st July 2019.
(a) Indian Bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Canara Bank 
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) Bank of Baroda

Q9. CCI has approved the merger of the Indiabulls Housing Finance and Lakshmi Vilas Bank recently. What is the full form of CCI?
(a) Competition Commission of International
(b) Competition Commission of India 
(c) Competition Corporation of India
(d) Central Commission of India
(e) Competition Core of Institute

Q10. Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Deputy Governor _____________________ has quit six months before the scheduled end of his term in June 2019. 
(a) Viral Acharya 
(b) NS Vishwanathan
(c) Bimal Jalan
(d) SS Mundra
(e) R Gandhi

Q11. The Reserve Bank of India has advised all Scheduled Commercial Banks to adopt Education Loan Scheme, formulated by Indian Banks Association. In this scheme, loan upto Rs ____________ lakh for study in India and upto Rs _____________ lakh for study abroad.
(a) Rs 40 lakh,  Rs 60 lakh
(b) Rs 20 lakh,  Rs 40 lakh
(c) Rs 50 lakh,  Rs 70 lakh
(d) Rs 10 lakh,  Rs 20 lakh 
(e) Rs 30 lakh,  Rs 40 lakh

Q12. The Complaint Management System (CMS) is a software application launched by _________________ on its website.
(a) RBI 
(b) IRDAI
(c) SBI
(d) TRAI
(e) SEBI

Q13. The Reserve Bank relaxed the leverage ratio (LR) to _____________ for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) and 3.5% for other banks. 
(a) 4.75%
(b) 5.50%
(c) 4.50%
(d) 5.00%
(e) 4.00% 

Q14. The RBI is planning to introduce a dedicated IVR system to track the status of complaints. What is the full form of IVR?
(a) International Voice Response
(b) Interactive Vehicles Response
(c) Interactive Voice Response 
(d) Indian Voice Response
(e) Initial Voice Response

Q15. The Reserve Bank of India has advised all Scheduled Commercial Banks to adopt Education Loan Scheme, formulated by Indian Banks Association. In this scheme, the Collateral free loans upto Rs _______________ under the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loans (CGFSEL).
(a) Rs 10 Lakh 
(b) Rs 7.5 Lakh  
(c) Rs 15 Lakh 
(d) Rs 20 Lakh 
(e) Rs 50 Lakh 



Solutions


S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Financial Literacy Week 2019 to be observed from June 3-7 on the theme of “Farmers” and how they benefit by being a part of the formal banking system. Financial Literacy Week is an initiative of RBI to promote awareness of key topics every year through a focused campaign. Growth in agriculture is necessary for the overall economic growth and finance is an essential enabler for the same.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. The RBI has slapped a penalty of Rs. 2 crores on Kotak Mahindra Bank for the non-state lender’s failure to adhere to the regulator’s diktat on promoter shareholding.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Based on the recommendations of the Committee on Currency Movement (CCM), the Reserve Bank have directed banks to ensure their ATMs are grouted to a wall, pillar, or floor by September-end, except those installed in high secured premises such as airports, to enhance security of the cash vending machines. The committee to review the entire gamut of security of treasure in transit is chaired by Shri D.K. Mohanty.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Jammu and Kashmir Bank will now come under the purview of Right to Information Act and Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) guidelines as per the decisions taken by the Board of Directors of the Jammu and Kashmir Bank to ensure greater transparency and accountability. RK Chhibber is present Interim Chairman and Managing Director of Jammu and Kashmir Bank.

S5. Ans.(e)
Sol. Reserve Bank fined country’s largest private sector lender HDFC Bank Rs 1 crore for not reporting frauds and non-compliance with other directions. The fine pertains to submission of forged bill of entries (BoEs) by certain importers to HDFC Bank for remittance of foreign currency.

S6. Ans.(e)
Sol. Jammu and Kashmir Bank is a J&K -based private sector banking and financial services company. It is a Private-owned bank with state share with its headquarters in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India. J&K Bank was incorporated in 1938 and the first bank in the country to emerge as a state–owned bank.

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. HDFC Bank Limited is an Indian banking and financial services company headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. From July 1, Canara Bank customers can deposit cash of up to Rs 50,000 for free only thrice a month. From the fourth transaction or for cash deposits of over Rs 50,000, there will be a service charge of Rs 1 per thousand, with a minimum of Rs 50 and a maximum of Rs 5,000 plus GST.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the merger of the Indiabulls Housing Finance and Lakshmi Vilas Bank. Lakshmi Vilas Bank is going to merge with Indiabulls Housing Finance in a share swap deal with intent to create a combined entity with a larger capital base and wider geographical reach.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Deputy Governor Viral Acharya has quit six months before the scheduled end of his term. He had joined RBI on January 23, 2017. Viral Acharya was in charge of the Financial Stability Unit, Monetary Policy Department, Department of Economic and Policy Research, Financial Markets Operation Department, Financial Market Regulation Department, among others at the RBI.

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India has advised all Scheduled Commercial Banks to adopt Education Loan Scheme, formulated by Indian Banks Association. In this scheme, Loan upto Rs 10 lakh for study in India and upto Rs 20 lakh for study abroad.

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Complaint Management System (CMS) is a software application launched by Reserve Bank of India on its website. It will be used for lodging complaints against banks and NBFCs with a view to improve customer experience in timely redressal of grievances.

S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Reserve Bank relaxed the leverage ratio (LR) to 4% for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) and 3.5% for other banks. This has been done to help them boost their lending activities. The reduced  leverage ratio will be effective from the quarter commencing October 1, 2019.

S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. The RBI is planning to introduce a dedicated Interactive Voice Response (IVR) system to track the status of complaints.

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India has advised all Scheduled Commercial Banks to adopt Education Loan Scheme, formulated by Indian Banks Association. Collateral free loans upto Rs 7.5 Lakh under the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loans (CGFSEL).




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IBPS RRB 2019: Exam to be conducted in 13 Regional Languages

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IBPS RRB 2019: Exam to be conducted in 13 Regional Languages

On the 4th of July, the Finance Minister of India Nirmala Sitharaman announced the news of great relief for thousands of IBPS RRB aspirants that from now on the IBPS RRB  along with English and Hindi will be conducted in 13 different regionals as well. 

Adda247 Always tries to help the aspirants so that they do not have to face any hurdle in the path of their success. We, at our end, confirmed from IBPS that IBPS RRB -8 Main examinations will be held in 13 regional languages in addition to Hindi and English. Yes, Now the IBPS RRB exam will be held in 13 regional languages other than Hindi and English.


Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu in addition to Hindi and English

The examination for Main examinations for the post of Scale - I Officer will be conducted on 22nd September and for the Office Assistant on 29th September. And the change in the examination language factor is to be implemented from the mains examination of CRP RRB-VIII 8 in 2019 onwards. This is really great news as many of the deserving candidates now can assure their participation and success because of their knowledge in the regional language. As the regional rural banks were established to provide people of rural areas with the best of opportunities, fluency in the local language would be beneficial for locals as well as the aspirant who will be able to secure more bank jobs.

Now with such an efficient announcement, students must be pumped with the adrenaline and we hope you will prepare with better planning and enthusiasm. Wish you all the very best for your exam preparations.


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Flash Sale | Get 50% Discount On All RRB JE CBT Stage II Products | Live Now

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Flash Sale | Get 50% Discount On All RRB JE CBT Stage II Products

As the RRB JE CBT Stage 1 result is declared by the Railways and now only 8 days are left for the next round, which is going to be held from 28.08.2019 to 1.09.20109. It is the high time to utilize your time and to reroute all your attention towards the CBT STAGE II preparation. You have already crossed the first hurdle now it is the time to showcase your ability and the same spirit in the Stage II exam.

The RRB JE stage II exam will consist of 5 sections namely General Awareness, Physics & Chemistry, Basics of Computers and Applications, Basics of Environment and Pollution Control and Technical Abilities with a total of 150 questions for 150 marks to be attempted in a duration of 120 minutes. The Technical ability section consists of 100 marks and thus require much of your attention alone. Now, all you need to make a proper plan and to strategize your studies you all need the best study material like ebooks,  test series, video course, and live class.

Use Coupon code: FLASH50
VALID Till: 6PM-10PM

To help our aspirants with the RRB JE preparation, adda247 is offering flash 50% discount on all RRB JE CBT Stage II study material such as video course, live class, test series, and ebooks. Use coupon code: FLASH50 to buy the products at a discounted price. The sale will go live at 6 PM, today evening. Do not forget to remind yourself of the Sale alarm. Get it, before it is gone.


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Daily Current Affairs 20th August 2019 | Daily GK Update

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Dear Aspirants,

General awareness section is the most important part of every competitive exam, it can help you score well in the exam if you are updated with all the current news. Banking Awareness, Static GK and the current news are the parts that make the GA section complete. It is important to know what is happening in and outside of India. GK updates are incorporated with the important news that made the headlines today. It is the complete bag of the important news that held all day long. One should have complete knowledge about the banking termscurrent affairs newsetc. So, here is the GK update of 20th August to help you prepare the Current affairs part. After reading this section, you can successfully attempt Current Affairs Quiz.

Daily-GK-Update-20th-August-2019
    National

    1. National Sports Awards 2019



    i. Selection Committee for the Sports Awards 2019 has announced the National Sports Awards 2019. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports. The awardees will receive their awards from the President of India at a specially organized function at the Rashtrapati Bhawan.
    ii. Selection Committee for the Sports Awards 2019 was headed by Justice Mukundakam Sharma, Retired Judge, Supreme Court.
    Apart from a medal and a citation, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee will receive a cash prize of Rs. 7.5 lakh. Arjuna, Dronacharya and Dhyan Chand Awardees will receive statuettes, certificates and cash prize of Rs. 5 lakh each. A trophy and citation is given to the entity in the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar, 2019. Recipients of Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar will be given Trophies and certificates. 
    iii. Overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments will be given MAKA Trophy, award money of Rs. 10 lakh and certificate.

    To read complete list of awardees Click Here

    International

    2. Qamar Javed Bajwa's term extended as Pakistan’s Chief of Army Staff



    i. Pakistan Prime Minister Office has announced a 3-year extension of General Qamar Javed Bajwa's tenure as Chief of Army Staff. 
    ii. Bajwa’s original term was to end in November 2019 after serving as Army chief for three years. He will remain as Army chief till November 2022.

    Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB PO Mains:
    • Pakistan Capital: Islamabad; PM: Imran Khan; President: Arif Alvi.

    3. Shavendra Silva appointed as Commander of the Sri Lankan Army



    i. President of Sri Lanka has appointed Lieutenant General Shavendra Silva as 23rd Commander of the Sri Lankan Army. He will replace Lt Gen Mahesh Senanayake as the Commander of the Sri Lankan Army. 
    ii. Mr. Silva commanded the Sri Lankan Army’s 58 Division during the final stages of the war against the rebel LTTE in 2009.

    Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB PO Mains:
    • Currency of Sri Lanka: Sri Lankan Rupee; Prime Minister: Ranil Wickremesinghe; President: Maithripala Sirisena.
    State News

    4. Karnataka categorises Nicotine as "class A poison"



    i. The Karnataka government has amended the Karnataka Poisons (Possession and Sale) Rules 2015 and notified Nicotine as "Class A poison". The step has been taken to strengthen the enforcement of the ban on production and sale of electronic cigarettes. 
    ii. The notification has also ordered the suspension of all kinds of promotion of e-cigarettes, including online promotion. This will curb the illegal sale, smuggling of nicotine cartridges and e-cigarettes.
    Class A poison are "Highly toxic chemicals", which even in very small quantities as gas or vapour in the air are dangerous to life (such as cyanogen, hydrocyanic acid, nitrogen peroxide, and phosgene).

    Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB Clerk Mains:
    • Capital of Karnataka: Bengaluru; CM: BS Yediyurappa; Governor: Vajubhai Vala.

      5. Gujarat to get India’s first CICET



      i. India’s first Central Institute of Chemical Engineering & Technology will be set up in Gujarat. It will be set up either in Ahmedabad or Surat. It will be built on the lines of Central Institute of Plastic Engineering and Technology. 
      ii. The aim of setting up the institute is to facilitate the chemical industry with research and innovations.

      Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB PO Mains:
      • CM of Gujarat: Vijay Rupani; Governor: Acharya Devvrat; Capital: Gandhinagar.

      Appointment

      6. Paytm promotes CFO Madhur Deora as President



      i. Digital payments player Paytm announced the promotion of its Chief Financial Officer Madhur Deora as the company's President.
      ii. Madhur joined the digital payment firm in October 2016. Earlier, Deora has served as Managing Director in Citigroup's investment banking business in New York, London and Mumbai.

      Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB Clerk Mains:
      • Paytm Founder: Vijay Shekhar Sharma.
      • Parent Organization: One97 Communications.

      7. Ravinder Takkar appointed as MD-CEO of Vodafone Idea


      i. Ravinder Takkar has been appointed as the MD and CEO of Idea-Vodafone. He is currently a board member of Vodafone Idea and Indus Towers, where he is responsible for all Vodafone Group interests in India. He will replace Balesh Sharma after his resignation as the chief executive officer of Vodafone Idea (VIL).

      Awards

      8. CCMB scientist K Thangaraj awarded JC Bose Fellowship



      i. Dr K Thangaraj, Chief Scientist at Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)- Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) was awarded JC Bose Fellowship.
      ii. Thangaraj was given this fellowship for his outstanding contributions in the field of population and medical genomics. 
      iii. The JC Bose Fellowship is awarded to scientists in recognition for their outstanding performance by the Science and Engineering Research Board, Department of Science and Technology.
      Defence

      9. Home Ministry fixes the retirement age of CAPF personnel at 60 years



      i. The Union Home Ministry has fixed the retirement age of all Central Armed Police Force personnel at 60 years
      ii. MHA has issued the order following the 2019 Delhi High Court verdict. The high court verdict asked the Ministry to fix a retirement age that would be uniform for all members of the CAPFs “irrespective of rank”.
      Important Days

      10. Sadbhavana Diwas: 20 August



      i. Sadbhavana Diwas is celebrated on 20 August every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This year will be the 75th Birth Anniversary of Rajiv Gandhi.
      ii. On this day national integration, peace, love, affection and communal harmony among all Indians are encouraged. Shri Rajiv Gandhi was born on August 20, 1944, in Bombay. At 40, Mr Rajiv Gandhi was the youngest Prime Minister of India.

      Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB Main 2019:
      • Rajiv Ratna Gandhi was the 6th Prime Minister of India, serving from 1984 to 1989.
      • He was assassinated on 21 May 1991.
      Sports

      11. Mitchell Johnson becomes MCC Honourary Life member



      i. Former Australian pace bowler Mitchell Johnson has been elected as an Honorary Life Member of the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC).
      ii. Johnson represented Australia in 153 One Day Internationals picking up 239 wickets, 73 international Test matches claiming 313 wickets and 30 T-20 Internationals in which he takes 38 wickets.

      12. Former Chelsea footballer Ashley Cole announces retirement



      i. Former Chelsea, Arsenal and England football player Ashley Cole aged 38, announced his retirement from football. He was ending his 20-year playing career.
      ii. He won 3 Premier League titles and seven FA Cups, as well as helping the Chelsea to win the 2011-12 Champions League.
      Obituaries

      13. Veteran music composer Mohammed Zahur Hashmi passes away



      i. Veteran music composer Mohammed Zahur Hashmi, popularly known as Khayyam passed away. He was best known for his music in classic films such as Umrao Jaan and Kabhi Kabhie. He was also a recipient of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Padma Bhushan.

      14. Sahitya Akademi Award winner NS Tasneem passes away



      i. Eminent Punjabi writer and Sahitya Akademi winner Professor Niranjan Singh Tasneem passed away.
      ii. Tasneem was awarded Sahitya Akademi award in 1999 for his novel ‘Gawache Arth’ (The Lost Meaning) which was based on Punjab and lives of Punjabis in 1984. He was also awarded Punjab’s highest literary honour "Punjabi Sahit Rattan" in 2015.  He had served as a professor at SCD Government College, Ludhiana.

      Miscellaneous

      15. India becomes the largest SO2 emitter in the world



      i. India is the world’s largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide, which is produced from coal burning, and greatly contributes to air pollution. According to an analysis of a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace.
      ii. India has more than 15% of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
      iii. The major SO2 emission hotspots in India are:
      • Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh
      • Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu
      • Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha
      • Korba in Chhattisgarh
      • Kutch in Gujarat
      • Ramagundam in Telangana
      • Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra
      Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
      • Administrator of NASA: Jim Bridenstine; Headquarter of NASA: Washington DC, US.

        IBPS PO Prelims English Quiz: 20th August 2019

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        ibps-po-prelims-english-quiz-2019

        IBPS PO Prelims English Quiz

        The English language perplexes most of the students and makes one nervous during the examination even if the answer to the question is known. But there are no formulas to cramp or the longer the calculation to deal with. The mistakes that occur are because of the lack of confidence. With proper strategy, Study NotesQuizzesVocabulary one can calm his/her nerves and excel in no time. Make the reading newspaper, editorial a habit, and also participate in the daily quiz. The IBPS PO 2019 is just one step away from your reach. Here is the quiz under the Study Plan 'FATEH', on the IBPS PO Prelims English Quiz and we have Word Usage Quiz for 20th August 2019.


        Directions (1-15): In the following questions, a word is given in bold followed by three sentences. Choose the appropriate option mentioning the sentence(s) that uses the highlighted word in a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful manner.

        Q1.
        Envisioning 
        (I)Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has been somewhat careful in speaking of envisioning a change in India’s nuclear deterrence posture. 
        (II) Knowing our history is a prerequisite for understanding our present and envisioning our future.
        (III) He despised his father for looking down on his mother and for envisioning Lynn
        (a)Both (I) and (III)
        (b)Only (I)
        (c)Only (II)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these 
        Q2.
        Retaliation
        (I) Those self-satisfied smirks and self-assured snarling’s will sooner or later turn to hands begging for retaliation
        (II)New Delhi has said consistently that India’s nuclear weapons were based on staggering and punitive retaliation
        (III) Although death sentences are handed down in Myanmar, they often are commuted on appeal, by presidential retaliation or in occasional amnesties
        (a)Both (I) and (II)
        (b)Only (I)
        (c)Only (II)
        (d)Both (I) and (III)
        (e)None of these 

        Q3. 
        Commemoration
        (I) Id–ul–Azha is the commemoration of sacrifice by Prophet Hazrath Ibrahim celebrated the world over by the Muslims annually on the 10th of the Islamic month of Zilhaj. 
        (II) The Royal Mail has released a stamp issue in commemoration of the 50th anniversary of the publication of the book.
        (III) Miller being received a full and unconditional commemoration from Ronald Reagan before he was sentenced.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (III)
        (e)None of these

        Q4. 
        Ambiguous
        (I) The tournament ambiguous begins with a group stage of 32 teams, divided into eight groups.
        (II) He must allow the camera to determine the ambiguous emphasis and the most effective dramatic highlights.
        (III)Revoking NFU does not necessarily mean giving up restraint, but it leaves India’s nuclear doctrine more ambiguous
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (III)
        (e)None of these

        Q5. 
        Legitimate
        (I)There are legitimate reasons why in our diverse society, the Constitution has ordained special rights
        (II) Newspapers and radio stations will carry adverts warning that the drug is legitimate to health.
        (III) The items were carefully wrapped to legitimate them from damage during shipping.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Both (II) and (III)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these

        Q6.
        Contentious 
        (I) Settlements of boundaries between villages were by all accounts tremendously contentious issues.
        (II) Smog and acid rain, water pollution and sewage disposal, dams and river-flows will become ever more contentious issues.
        (III) Whatever the eventual outcome of this contentious issue, it is not likely to be resolved in the near future.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)All of the above 
        (e)None of these

        Q7.
        Reprimanded
        (I)Lawmakers speak without being reprimanded about men from the rest of the country marrying “fair” Kashmiri women.
        (II) She has come to be reprimanded as an avatar of charity and concern for the poor.
        (III) Judge Elberry watched delightedly as horror reprimanded on his prisoners' faces.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these

        Q8. 
        Significant 
        (I) A blood test will show a significant reduction in the haemoglobin content of the red blood cells and an increase in the size of the cells
        (II)Most companies do not see the significant impact of the current trade situation between the US and China on their business. 
        (III)He could scarcely have significant a theory indicating a more unfortunate inacquaintance with the subject.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these

        Q9. 
        Scrapping 
        (I)After scrapping of Article 370, the government’s next agenda should be to get back the Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
        (II) The license allows a business to buy and resell vehicles for wrecking, processing, scrapping, recycling or dismantling.
        (III) The Government has announced it is scrapping the star rating system for NHS services and is considering a replacement. 
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c)Only (III)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these

        Q10. 
        Regimen
        (I) The two companies have signed a non-binding regimen of intent on the proposed investment. (II)The regimen was found to be safe and effective in curing TB in people living with HIV.
        (III)Health officials have announced that they will re-evaluate the treatment regimen of ribavirin and steroids.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c) Both (II) and (III)
        (d) Only (III)
        (e)None of these

        Q11.
        Perpetuate
        (I)Lack of access to cheap finance will perpetuate loan defaults, driving confidence down and rates up. 
        (II) Such perpetuate for the religious beliefs and religious art practices of others are the sign of an ignorant and thoughtless person.
        (III) This bill shows the government's perpetuate for basic human rights and established legal principles.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c) Both (II) and (II)
        (d) Only (III)
        (e)None of these

        Q12. 
        Efficiency 
        (I) Potential harms from screening include the consequences of false-positive tests, but evidence regarding these is efficiency.
        (II)Labour contractors in infrastructure projects are acutely aware of these aspects as they seek to maximise efficiency and quality.
        (III) Generator tripping must be technically and contractually efficiency, and the reactive power devices must be in place.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c) Both (I) and (III)
        (d) Only (III)
        (e)None of these

        Q13.
        Trigger
        (I) Rebuilding those inventories will trigger a combination of increased U.S. production and resurgence in imports in coming months.
        (II) Permanent pain relief with anaesthesia can be achieved with injections of phenol into the painful trigger point.
        (III)Increased risks of labour shortages can trigger a rise in unemployment and aggravate wage inflation
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Only (II)
        (c) Only (III) 
        (d)All of the above 
        (e)None of these

        Q14. 
        Buoyed
        (I)Buoyed by a strong mandate, Narendra Modi underscored his government’s essential style — of being resolute in taking big-ticket steps
        (II)  It could be buoyed that there are about 80,000 deployed in the northern part of Kashmir, along the Line of Control.
        (III) In May 2008, the land was buoyed to the Amarnath shrine to set up temporary shelters for the pilgrims
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Both (II) and (III)
        (c) Both (III) and (I)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these

        Q15.
        Astute 
        (I)Combining astute nationalist politics and economics, he exhorts Indians to explore tourist spots in their country rather than destinations overseas. 
        (II) Discerning, astute, uncompromising, his leadership inspired one to venture against all odds.
        (III) To do otherwise would be to astute the trust that our patients place in us as advocates on their behalf.
        (a)Only (I)
        (b)Both (II) and (III)
        (c) Both (III) and (I)
        (d)Both (I) and (II)
        (e)None of these



                                                                                SOLUTIONS

        S1. Ans. (d)
        Sol. ‘envisioning’ means ‘imagine as a future possibility or visualize’. Therefore, statements (I) and (II) stand contextually correct

        S2. Ans. (c)
        Sol. The word ‘retaliation’ means ‘the action of harming someone because they have harmed oneself; revenge. In this context, statement (II) holds the correct usage of the highlighted word.  

        S3. Ans. (a)
        Sol. The word ‘commemoration’ stands for ‘a ceremony or celebration in which a person or event is remembered. Here, statement (I) & (II) stand correct with correct word usage.

        S4. Ans. (c)
        Sol. In the above statements, only statement (III) is grammatically and contextually correct having the right usage of ambiguous. “ambiguous” means “not clear or decided”.  

        S5. Ans. (a)
        Sol. “legitimate” means “conforming to the law or rules”. In this context, the statement (I) is correct with the correct usage of the word. 

        S6. Ans. (d)
        Sol. The highlighted word “contentious” refers to “causing or likely to cause an argument; controversial”. In all the three statements, it is used correctly. Hence, option (d)“All of the above” is the correct answer choice.

        S7. Ans. (a)
        Sol. “Reprimanded” is past-participle of “reprimand” which means “a formal expression of disapproval”. Here, its correct literal meaning is used in the only statement (I). Therefore, option (a) is the right answer choice. 

        S8. Ans. (d)
        Sol. Both (I) and (II) statement stand correct. The word “significant” means sufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention; noteworthy.” Hence, option (d) is an apt answer choice. 

        S9. Ans. (e)
        Sol. The highlighted word “scrapping” refers to” discard or remove from service, abolish or cancel”. The above statements carry the correct meaning of the word. As “All are correct” is not mentioned in the given options, “none of these” option (e) is the right answer choice.

        S10. Ans. (c)
        Sol. The term “regimen” infers “a prescribed course of medical treatment, diet, or exercise for the promotion or restoration of health.” In (II) and (III) statements, the highlighted word is correctly used. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer choice. 

        S11. Ans. (a)
        Sol. Word “perpetuate” refers to “make something continue indefinitely”. In (I), it’s referring that lack of access to cheap finance will continue loan defaults, driving confidence down and rates up. The other two statements are not portraying the correct meaning of the highlighted word, thus making the sentence contextually wrong. 

        S12. Ans. (b)
        Sol. “Efficiency” means “a state or quality of being efficient”. It is well-used in the statement (II). So, option (b) is the right answer selection.

        S13. Ans. (d)
        Sol. “trigger” means “stimulate, cause a situation or an event to happen or exist”. In the above sentences, all of them carry the correct meaning. So, option (d) ‘all of the above’ is the right answer.

        S14. Ans. (a)
        Sol. Here, the term ‘buoyed’ means ‘encouraged or bucked-up’. In this context, only the (I) stand correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

        S15. Ans. (d)
        Sol. ‘astute’ refers to ‘having or showing an ability to accurately assess situations or people and turn this to one's advantage.’ In the above-given statements, only (I) and (II) statements are correct. Hence, option (d) is apt answer selection.




        You may also like to Read:
               

        All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB Prelims Results 2019!!

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        Study Notes: Seating Arrangement For Bank PO

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        Study Notes: Seating Arrangement For Bank PO

        Today we’ll discuss about Seating Arrangement. This topic is can fetch you marks easily but you need to know the right concepts and types of questions to practice. 

        In banking exams Seating Arrangement questions can be asked in itself or Data Sufficiency. Usually 10-12 questions can be asked from this topic, thus it can fetch you easy marks with right practice.

        Introduction
        ⇒ In seating arrangement, we are generally asked to arrange a group of people according to the given conditions. They may have to be seated around a table, the table could be of any shape-circular, square, rectangular, pentagonal or any other. To solve seating arrangement problems on the basis of the information given in the equation.
        ⇒ It is one of the important part of the reasoning section for any competitive exam (specially Bank PO). In this part, questions are based on set of information containing set of conditions which gives hidden information followed by set of questions.
        ⇒ These type of questions judge the ability of a candidates to analyze the information and solve the questions by the help of pictorial figures.

        CONCEPTS:
         Linear arrangement: - In this arrangement, there can be single row or parallel rows facing each other or opposite.

        (i) 

        (Directions if the people are facing north)

        (ii) 

        (Directions if the people are facing South)

        (iii) 

        (Directions if the people are seating parallel to each other facing South and North)


        Circular Arrangement: In this Arrangement, people are sitting around a circle facing towards or outside the centre.
        (i)
        (ii)
        (iii)

        Rectangular/square Arrangement: In this Arrangement, people are sitting around a rectangle or square facing towards or outside the centre.
        (i)
        (ii)
        (iii)

        (People sitting at middle of the side, facing the centre and people sitting at edge/corner facing outside the centre)

        Important points to be noted during solving the questions:

        ☞ Step I: The data given in such questions specify the positions of some or all the individuals in arrangement. The positions are specified through conditions involving specified persons sitting (or not sitting) opposite each other or a particular person sitting to the right of left of another person etc.
        ☞ Step II: Once you read the data, first draw the shape (Circle, square, rectangle, pentagaon, etc) specified in the data and then mark the slots (empty spaces) in the sitting arrangement.
        ☞ Step III: Using all definite information, fill up as many slots (empty places) as possible. Means always be careful to choose the correct starting point. Those information which are (100%) confirm should be taken first.
        ☞ Step IV: Never assume anything in the questions.
        ☞ Step V: In case, if information cannot be use, mark that information and use them, later when the problems calls for it.
        ☞ Step VI: Now, move on the comparative information. Taking comparative information and consider all possibilities and choose the possibility which does not violate any condition.
        ☞ Step VII: Be careful with certain words like “not”, “only”, “who”, “and”.
        ☞ Step VIII:  Some gender defining terms are like “him”, “her”, “he”, “she” will help you decode the information.

        Some specific type of statements:
        ☞ A is between B and C
        ⇒ In this case there are two possibilities


        ☞  A, who is 3rd to the left of B

         ☞ A, who is third to the right of B
        ☞ B is sitting to the immediate left of A, who is sitting to the immediate left of C.
        ☞ B, who is sitting to the immediate left of A and to the immediate right of C. 

        ☞ B and C are adjacent of A:-
         In this case there are two possibilities
        Example 1:
        Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a circular table but not necessary in same order. Two persons sit between R and Q. Two persons sit between R and S. V sits third to the right of P who is not immediate neighbor of S and Q. W sits opposite to T. U sits immediate right of W. S does not sit third to the left of W.

        Example 2:
        Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons in each row such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
        T sits third to the right of Q. The persons facing P sits to the immediate right of B. Only one person sits between B and D. P sits second to the left of T.  A is not an immediate neighbor of B. Only two people sit between A and C. Neither B nor A faces S.

        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 20th August 2019

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        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Quantitative Quiz


        Do you follow a proper strategy or Study Plan for IBPS RRB Mains 2019? Are you aiming IBPS RRB 2019 this time? If yes, then this is the section which can help you to do wonders if practiced well. A good attempt with a mix of accuracy can help you fetch good marks. The reasoning is a game of wits and mind. It is all about logics that a question may have. Speed and accuracy are what that matters the most in this section. The only way to achieve an ambitious goal is by practicing only. So, attempt the quiz of Reasoning ability that inculcates the important questions from the important topics. Do not miss out to practice the Quantitative aptitude quiz that is being provided on bankersadda.


        Directions (1-5): Study the following graph and answer the questions accordingly: 

        The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of  questions asked from different sections of quant in 10 years in various banking exams 



        Q1. What is the difference between the number of difficult questions asked from DI and Series sections ?
        (a) 693342
        (b) 865260
        (c) 682503
        (d) 721050
        (e) 713394

        Q2. The number of difficult questions asked from Alligation section are approximately what percent of  number of difficult questions asked from Quadratic section ? 
        (a) 48%
        (b) 67%
        (c) 37%
        (d) 24%
        (e) 73%

        Q3. What is the ratio of total number of easy questions asked from Alligation and Profit and Loss sections together to the total number of easy questions asked from Percentage and Time and work sections together ?  
        (a) 111:123
        (b) 241:233
        (c) 23:77
        (d) 125:351
        (e) None of these

        Q4. The number of difficult questions asked from Series section are what percent more or less than the total number of questions asked from Percentage section ?         
                
        (a) 61% less
        (b) 59%less 
        (c) 55% less
        (d) 67% more
        (e) 60% less

        Q5. What is the average number of difficult questions asked from DI, Quadratic and Alligation  sections together ?
        (a) 2745340
        (b)1756880
        (c) 2383400
        (d) 1383910
        (e) None of these


        Q6.There were 42 students in a hostel. Due to the admission of 13 new students, the expenses of the mess increase by Rs. 30 per day while the average expenditure per head diminished by Rs. 3. What was the original expenditure of the mess ? 
        (a) Rs. 630 
        (b) Rs. 580
        (c) Rs. 620
        (d) Rs. 640 
        (e) Rs. 440

        Q7.4 years ago, the respective ratio between 1/2 of A’s age at that time and four times of B’s age at that time was 5 : 12. Eight years hence 1/2 of A’s age at that time will be less than B’s age at that time by 2 years. What is B’s present age ? 
        (a) 10 years
        (b) 14 years
        (c) 12 years
        (d) 5 years
        (e) 8 years

        Q8.The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs. 2000 in five years at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on same principal at the same rate in two years? 
        (a) Rs. 716 
        (b) Rs. 724 
        (c) Rs. 804 
        (d) Rs. 816
        (e) Rs. 776

        Q9.A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 litres of the mixture is taken out and 10 litres of liquid B is poured into the jar, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. How many litres of liquid A was contained in the jar?
        (a) 14 litres
        (b) 18 litres
        (c) 20 litres
        (d) 16 litres
        (e) 22 litres

        Q10.An item was bought at Rs x and sold at Rs y, there by earning a profit of 20%. Had the value of x been 15% less and the value of y Rs 76 less, a profit of 30% would have been earned. What was the value of x.
        (a) Rs 640
        (b) Rs 400
        (c) Rs 600
        (d) Rs 800
        (e) Rs 840

        Directions (11-15): Which term is placed incorrectly in the following questions ?

        Q11.   190, 166, 145, 128, 112, 100, 91
        (a) 190
        (b) 145
        (c) 128
        (d) 100
        (e) 166

        Q12.   9261, 6859, 4913, 3376, 2197
        (a) 9261
        (b) 6859
        (c) 4913
        (d) 3376
        (e) 2197

        Q13.   625, 626, 945, 1883, 4710
        (a) 625
        (b) 626
        (c) 1883
        (d) 4710
        (e) 945

        Q14.   20, 35, 60, 106, 190
        (a) 20
        (b) 35
        (c) 60
        (d) 106
        (e) 190

        Q15.   130, 340, 812.5, 2031.25, 5078.125
        (a) 130
        (b) 340
        (c) 812.5
        (d) 2031.25
        (e) 5078.125

        Solutions












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        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Reasoning Quiz: 20th August 2019

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        Dear Aspirants,


        ibps-rrb-reasoning-quiz

        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Reasoning Quiz

        Do you follow a proper plan or strategy for IBPS RRB Mains 2019? Are you aiming IBPS RRB 2019 this time? If yes, then this is the section which can help you to do wonders if practiced well. A good attempt with a mix of accuracy can help you fetch good marks. The reasoning is a game of wits and mind. It is all about logics that a question may have. Speed and accuracy are what that matters the most in this section. The only way to achieve an ambitious goal is by practicing only. So, attempt the quiz of Reasoning ability that inculcates the important questions from the important topics. Do not miss out to practice the Reasoning ability quiz that is being provided on bankersadda.

        Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: 

        Seven boxes J, K, L, M, X, Y and Z are placed one above other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is containing different stationary items viz. Pen, Pencil, Eraser, Marker, Glue, Ruler and Notebook, but not necessarily in the same order. 
        Box J does not contain Pencil. Box K is not placed above box M. Box which contains Pen is placed immediately below box J. There are two boxes placed between box M and the box which contains Pen. Box M is not placed above the box which contains Pen. Box which contains Eraser is placed below box M. Three boxes are placed between box L and the box which contains Eraser. The box which contains Notebook is placed immediately below box L. The box which contains Marker is placed immediately below box Z. Only one box is placed between box K and box X. Neither box K nor box J contains Glue. Box X does not contain Marker. Box Z contains neither Glue nor Ruler. Box which contains Pencil is not placed at the top.

        Q1. Which of the following stationary item box L contains?
        (a) Marker
        (b) Pen
        (c) Ruler
        (d) Glue
        (e) None of these

        Q2. Which of the following Box contains Notebook?
        (a) K
        (b) M
        (c) Y
        (d) X
        (e) None of these

        Q3. Which of the following pair of boxes are placed at top and bottom respectively?
        (a) J, Y
        (b) L, K
        (c) Z, M
        (d) X, Y
        (e) J, L

        Q4. Which of the following combination is true?
        (a) Y - Ruler
        (b) K - Glue
        (c) L - Pen
        (d) X - Pencil
        (e) M – Glue

        Q5. How many boxes are placed below the box which contains Ruler?
        (a) Six
        (b) Four
        (c) Two
        (d) One
        (e) None

        Direction (6-7): Study the following information and answer the following questions.

        Point X is 3m south of point Q. Point S is 12m east of point Q. A person starts walking from point S in north direction and after walking 10m he reached at point Y. 

        Q6. Find out the shortest distance between point X to point Y and what is the direction of point Y with respect to point X?
        (a) 5m, South-west
        (b) 15m, South-west
        (c) 13m, North-west
        (d) 5m, North-east
        (e) None of these

        Q7. What is the direction of Point S with respect to point X?
        (a) South-West
        (b) North-East
        (c) South
        (d) North
        (e) North-West

        Directions (8-10): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

        Dinesh start his journey from point D, He walks 15m in north and take his right and walks 10m to reach at point M. Now he start walking towards south direction and walks 25m to reach point N. Now he takes his right turn and walks 7m to reach point O. From point O, he start walking towards north direction and walks 19m to reach point P. Now he takes right turn and walks 9m to reach at point Q.

        Q8. In which direction point N with respect to point Q?
        (a) North-west
        (b) North-east
        (c) South-west
        (d) South-east
        (e) None of these

        Q9. What is the shortest distance between point Q and point M?
        (a) √38m
        (b) 5m
        (c) 2√10m
        (d) 6m
        (e) None of these

        Q10.What is the shortest distance between point D and point N? 
        (a) 25m
        (b) 25√5m
        (c) 30m
        (d)√450m
        (e) None of these

        Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. 
        In a certain code language:-

        “These new panchayats” is written as ‘ $725  #1135 $1337’
        “Three old orbiting ” is written as ‘ #1222 $725 $1219’
        “Liquid water power” is written as ‘#1516 $1134 $441’

        Q11. “Hello” will be coded as?
        (a) $15O3   
        (b) #32K3
        (c) #28S4
        (d) $1923
        (e) $2319

        Q12. “Career Power” will be coded as?
        (a) #21R5   #34W4
        (b) $31R3  $31E5
        (c) $25E3   #32E5
        (d) #2421  $1134
        (e) None of these

        Q13. What is the code for “QUICKER”? 
        (a) $1035        
        (b) #16C5    
        (c) $3635   
        (d) #12C7    
        (e) #26E7    

        Q14. Which will be the code for ‘PARAMOUNT’?
        (a) #24U7
        (b) $34N6
        (c) $1136
        (d) #26N8
        (e) #24N9

        Q15. What is the code of ‘PRESENT’?
        (a) ‘$24T5  
        (b) #16I6  
        (c) $1136
        (d) $41E5
        (e) None of these

                                                      Solutions 
        Solutions (1-5):
        S1. Ans.(a)
        Sol.

        S2. Ans.(d)
        Sol. 

        S3. Ans.(a)
        Sol.

        S4. Ans.(e)
        Sol.

        S5. Ans.(a)
        Sol.

        Solutions (6-7):

        S6. Ans.(e)
        Sol. 

        S7. Ans.(b)
        Sol.

        Solutions (8-10):
        S8. Ans. (c)
        Sol.

        S9. Ans. (c)
        Sol.
        S10. Ans.(e)
        Sol. 

        Solutions (11-15):

        S11. Ans.(d)
        Sol. 

        S12. Ans.(e)
        Sol. 

        S13. Ans.(a)
        Sol.

        S14. Ans.(c)
        Sol.

        S15. Ans.(c)
        Sol.





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        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Static Awareness Quiz: 20th August 2019

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        Dear Aspirants,
        static--awareness-quiz-for-ibps-rrb-main

        IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main Static GK Questions

        In every Bank/Insurance/SSC and Other competitive exams, there will be some questions of Static GK based. So, here we have given the most important static gk questions for IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main Exam. You can also check the quiz of IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main. These questions are also important for EPFO Assistant and SSA, and other upcoming exams.

        Q1. The Digital Communications Commission (DCC) approved the cumulative penalty of Rs 3,050 crore on Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea. The penalty was imposed by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI). Who is the Present Chairman of TRAI?
        (a) Sunil K Gupta
        (b) Nitin Kumar Kohli
        (c) Ram Sewak Sharma
        (d) H Pradeep Rao
        (e) Abhay Karandikar

        Q2. Asian Development Bank has sanctioned Rs 1925 Cr project for up-gradation of power generation and distribution in Tripura. ADB established in which year?
        (a) 1972
        (b) 1980
        (c) 1975
        (d) 1966
        (e) 1992

        Q3. Researchers discover Dracaena Cambodiana, a dragon tree species in the Dongka Sarpo area of West Karbi Anglong district in Assam. Who is the present governor of Assam?
        (a) BD Mishra
        (b) Najma Heptulla
        (c) Tathagata Roy
        (d) RN Ravi
        (e) Jagdish Mukhi

        Q4. Union Cabinet has approved the merger of National Institute of Miners Health with Indian Council of Medical Research and National Institute of Occupational Health. Where is the Headquarter of ICMR?
        (a) New Delhi
        (b) Mumbai
        (c) Dehradun
        (d) Bengaluru
        (e) Chennai

        Q5. BS Yeddyurappa to take oath as Karnataka Chief Minister. Which of the following National park is situated in Karnataka?
        (a) Bandipur National Park
        (b) Eravikulam National Park
        (c) Galathea National Park
        (d) Gorumara National Park
        (e) Guindy National Park

        Q6. Apple has announced the acquisition of chip-maker Intel's smartphone modem business for $1 billion. Who is the founder of Apple Inc?
        (a) Bill Hewlett
        (b) Larry Page
        (c) Steve Jobs
        (d) Bill Gates
        (e) KR Narayanan

        Q7. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) launched an online encyclopedia called Securitypedia. Who is the Director-General of CISF? 
        (a) Prakash Mishra
        (b) Sanjay Kumar
        (c) Ravi joseph Lokku
        (d) Rajesh Ranjan
        (e) S.N pradhan

        Q8. Chandigarh received affiliation from the Board of Control for Cricket in India(BCCI) after nearly four decades. Where is the headquarter of BCCI?
        (a) Kolkata
        (b) Gurgaon
        (c) Dehradun
        (d) Delhi
        (e) Mumbai

        Q9. The Government of India begins the 7th Economic Census from Tripura. Who is the present Minister of State (Independent Charge) of Ministry of Statistics?
        (a) Jitendra Singh
        (b) Prahalad Singh Patel
        (c) Rao Inderjit Singh
        (d) Shripad Yesso Naik
        (e) Raj Kumar Singh

        Q10. 5th Dharma-Dhamma conference was held in Rajgir, Bihar. Which of the following river is flows through Bihar?
        (a) Ganga River
        (b) Tapti River
        (c) Sabarmati River
        (d) Periyar River
        (e) Narmada River

        Q11. Nepal invited as a partner country for Gita Jayanti Mahotsav 2019. What is the capital of Nepal?
        (a) Nepalgunj
        (b) Pokhara
        (c) Bharatpur
        (d) Lalitpur
        (e) Kathmandu

        Q12. WhatsApp has partnered with NITI Aayog, under the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP). Who is the founder of Whatsapp?
        (a) Mark Zuckerberg
        (b) Jan Koum
        (c) Chad Hurley
        (d) Kevin Systrom
        (e) Vic Gundotra

        Q13. IPS officer V.K. Johri has been appointed as the next Director General (DG) of the country’s largest border guarding force, Border Security Force(BSF). BSF established in which year?
        (a) 1957
        (b) 1993
        (c) 1963
        (d) 1965
        (e) 1972

        Q14. Red Bull's Max Verstappen wins German Grand Prix held in Hockenheim, Germany. Who is the present Chancellor of Germany?
        (a) Angela Merkel
        (b) Walter Scheel
        (c) Helmut Kohl
        (d) Gerhard Schröder
        (e) Willy Brandt

        Q15. India and Benin signed four MoUs on education, health and e-visa facilities. Who is the present president of Benin?
        (a) Mathieu Kerekou
        (b) Nicephore Soglo
        (c) Abdoulaye Bio Tchane
        (d) Thomas Boni Yayi
        (e) Patrice Talon

            Solutions


        S1. Ans. (c)
        Sol. The current Chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is Ram Sewak Sharma.

        S2. Ans. (d)
        Sol. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966.

        S3. Ans. (e)
        Sol. Professor Jagdish Mukhi is the incumbent Governor of Assam appointed by the President of India, Shri Ramnath Kovind.

        S4. Ans. (a)
        Sol. The headquarter of Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR) in New Delhi.

        S5. Ans. (a)
        Sol. Bandipur National Park established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the Indian state of Karnataka.

        S6. Ans. (c)
        Sol. Steven Paul Jobs was an American business magnate and investor. He was the chairman, chief executive officer, and founder of Apple Inc.

        S7. Ans. (d)
        Sol. Rajesh Ranjan, a 1984 batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer, has been appointed as the Director-General (DG) of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).

        S8. Ans. (e)
        Sol. The headquarter of Board of Control for Cricket in India(BCCI) in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

        S9. Ans. (c)
        Sol. The present Minister of State (Independent Charge) of Ministry of Statistics is Rao Inderjit Singh.

        S10. Ans. (a)
        Sol. Bihar is a state in East India, bordering Nepal. It is divided by the River Ganges, which floods its fertile plains.

        S11. Ans. (e)
        Sol. Kathmandu is the capital and largest city of Nepal, with a population of around 3 million.

        S12. Ans. (b)
        Sol. Jan Koum is a Ukrainian American computer programmer. He is the founder and CEO of WhatsApp.

        S13. Ans. (d)
        Sol. BSF was established on this day. India's Border Security Force (BSF), the central armed police force of the country, was established on December 1, 1965.

        S14. Ans. (a)
        Sol. Angela Dorothea Merkel is a German politician serving as Chancellor of Germany since 2005.

        S15. Ans. (e)
        Sol. Patrice Guillaume Athanase Talon is a Beninese businessman and politician who has been President of Benin since 6 April 2016. Patrice Guillaume Athanase Talon is a Beninese businessman and politician who has been President of Benin since 6 April 2016.


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        All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Main!!


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        BA Study Kit: 20th August 2019

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        BA Study Kit: 20th August 2019

        Missed any important update, quiz or article of the day? Do not worry. Here is the BA study kit of the day that is inculcated with all the events and news that happened all day long on Bankersadda. Every single post on Bankersadda is important for the banking aspirants do not miss out any update. To help you revise all that you have learned today, we are providing you with the complete bag of the study material and notes. Check the important quiz and articles that took the place on Bankersadda today. Check the BA study kit for 20th August 2019.


        1. Nainital Bank SO/PO/Clerk 2019: Preparation Tips

        2. The Ultimate Live Batch for IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains

        3. Current Affairs Quiz: 20 August 2019 : IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Exam

        4. Daily Vocabulary: 20th August 2019

        5. Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATEH

        6. IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 2019 Shift 4 - Candidates Reported a Wrong Puzzle! What to do?

        7. EPFO Assistant Prelims Result 2019 to be out soon

        8. IBPS PO Ultimate Live Batch (Pre +Main)

        9. IBPS RRB Mains Study Plan

        10. IBPS PO Prelims Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 20th August 2019

        11. IBPS PO Reasoning Ability Quiz: 20th August

        12. Flash Sale | Get 50% Discount On All RRB JE CBT Stage II Products

        13. IBPS RRB Clerk Cut Off 2019 : Expected Prelims Cut Off

        14. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz: 20th August 2019

        15. Upcoming Government Exams 2019: Discussion on Important Topics | Live Now!

        16. IBPS RRB 2019: Exam to be conducted in 13 Regional Languages

        17. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Static Awareness Quiz: 20th August 2019

        18. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Reasoning Quiz: 20th August 2019

        19. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 20th August 2019

        20. Study Notes: Seating Arrangement For Bank PO

        21. IBPS PO Prelims English Quiz: 20th August 2019

             Never give up, for that is just the place and time that the tide will turn.

        All the Best BA'ians for the Upcoming Exams !!

        Current Affairs Quiz: 21 August 2019 : IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Exam

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        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Current Affairs Questions: 21st August



        IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Current Affairs

        The Current Affairs section comes under the General Awareness which is as important as the formulas are for mathematics calculations, so this section is one that needs your undivided attention.  You cannot pile up all the news and read them in a go, you need to be up to the mark when it comes to daily affairs of the world. So here in Adda247, we prepare quizzes on daily news that holds importance considering the banking examinations, like IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main, IBPS PO/Clerk and many more. So to help you out in the finals, here is the 21st August 2019 Quiz on the current affairs of the previous day.


        Q1. On which day India celebrates Sadbhavana Diwas to encourage national integration, peace, love, affection and communal harmony among all Indians.

        (a) 17 August

        (b) 18 August

        (c) 19 August

        (d) 20 August

        (e) 21 August


        Q2. Name the Chief Scientist at Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)– Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) who was awarded the JC Bose Fellowship for his outstanding contributions in the field of population and medical genomics.

        (a) Dr Shekhar C. Mande

        (b) Dr K Thangaraj

        (c) Prof. Ashutosh Sharma

        (d) Dr M. O. Garg

        (e) Dr Girish Sahni


        Q3. Name the veteran music composer who was best known for his music in classic films such as Umrao Jaan and Kabhi Kabhie and was also a recipient of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Padma Bhushan passed away recently.

        (a) Anu Malik

        (b) Naushad

        (c) Rajesh Roshan

        (d) Jatin Pandit

        (e) Mohammed Zahur Hashmi


        Q4. Name the former Australian pace bowler who has been elected as an Honorary Life Member of the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC).

        (a) Mitchell Johnson

        (b) Jhye Richardson

        (c) Kurtis Patterson

        (d) Josh Hazlewood

        (e) Shaun Tait


        Q5. Which country has become the world’s largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide as per the analysis of National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace?

        (a) Russia

        (b) India

        (c) Mexico

        (d) China

        (e) France


        Q6. Name the punjabi writer who was awarded Sahitya Akademi award in 1999 for his novel ‘Gawache Arth’, passed away recently.

        (a) Vanita

        (b) Swarajbir Singh

        (c) Mitter Sain Meet

        (d) Niranjan Singh Tasneem

        (e) Darshan Buttar


        Q7. Who among the following will replace Balesh Sharma as the MD and CEO of Idea-Vodafone Ltd?

        (a) Mukesh Ambani

        (b) Ravinder Takkar

        (c) Jyoti Jain

        (d) Gopal Vittal

        (e) Pravin Kumar Purwar


        Q8. Name the former Chelsea, Arsenal and England football player who has recently announced his retirement from football.

        (a) Frank Lampard

        (b) John Terry

        (c) Didier Drogba

        (d) Ashley Cole

        (e) Joe Cole


        Q9. Which state government has notified Nictoine as “Class A poison” to strengthen enforcement of the ban on production and sale of electronic cigarettes?

        (a) Karnataka

        (b) Rajasthan

        (c) Haryana

        (d) Punjab

        (e) Tamil Nadu


        Q10. Who among the following has been promoted as the company's President by digital payment player "Paytm"?

        (a) Vijay Shekhar Sharma

        (b) Binny Bansal

        (c) Sameer Nigam

        (d) Madhur Deora

        (e) Bipin Preet Singh


        Q11. In which of the following state, India’s first Central Institute of Chemical Engineering & Technology will be set up to facilitate the chemical industry with research and innovations?

        (a) Gujarat

        (b) Maharashtra

        (c) Kerala

        (d) West Bengal

        (e) Bihar


        Q12. Who among the following has been appointed by the President of Sri Lanka as 23rd Commander of the Sri Lankan Army?

        (a) Lt Gen Mahesh Senanayake

        (b) Lt Crishantha de Silva

        (c) Lt Daya Ratnayake

        (d) Lt Jagath Jayasuriya

        (e) Lt General Shavendra Silva


        Q13. The Union Home Ministry has fixed the retirement age of all Central Armed Police Force personnel at _______________________

        (a) 58 years

        (b) 59 years

        (c) 60 years

        (d) 61 years

        (e) 62 years


        Q14. India celebrates Sadbhavana Diwas to encourage national integration, peace, love, affection and communal harmony among all Indians. The day is celebrated on the  birth anniversary of which of the following former Prime Minister of India?

        (a) Inder Kumar Gujral

        (b) Rajiv Gandhi

        (c) Morarji Desai

        (d) Chandra Shekhar

        (e) Indira Gandhi


        Q15. Name the present Chief of Army Staff of Pakistan whose tenure has been extended for 3 years by the Pakistan's Prime Minister Office.

        (a) General Ashfaq Parvez Kayani

        (b) General Raheel Sharif

        (c) General Pervez Musharraf

        (d) General Qamar Javed Bajwa

        (e) General Jehangir Karamat


                                                                                    Solutions

        S1. Ans.(d)

        Sol. India celebrates Sadbhavana Diwas on 20 August to encourage national integration, peace, love, affection and communal harmony among all Indians.


        S2. Ans.(b)

        Sol. Dr K Thangaraj, Chief Scientist at Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)– Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) was awarded JC Bose Fellowship for his outstanding contributions in the field of population and medical genomics.


        S3. Ans.(e)

        Sol. Veteran music composer Mohammed Zahur Hashmi popularly known as Khayyam was best known for his music in classic films such as Umrao Jaan and Kabhi Kabhie and was also a recipient of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Padma Bhushan passed away recently.


        S4. Ans.(a)

        Sol. Former Australian pace bowler Mitchell Johnson has been elected as an Honorary Life Member of the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC).


        S5. Ans.(b)

        Sol. India is the world’s largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide as per the analysis of National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace.


        S6. Ans.(d)

        Sol. Eminent Punjabi writer and Sahitya Akademi winner (1999) Professor Niranjan Singh Tasneem passed away recently.


        S7. Ans.(b)

        Sol. Ravinder Takkar will replace Balesh Sharma as the MD and CEO of Idea-Vodafone Ltd.


        S8. Ans.(d)

        Sol. Former Chelsea, Arsenal and England football player Ashley Cole has announced his retirement from football.


        S9. Ans.(a)

        Sol. The Karnataka government has notified Nictoine as “Class A poison” to strengthen enforcement of the ban on production and sale of electronic cigarettes.


        S10. Ans.(d)

        Sol. Madhur Deora has been promoted as the company's President by digital payment player "Paytm".


        S11. Ans.(a)

        Sol. India’s first Central Institute of Chemical Engineering & Technology will be set up in Gujarat to facilitate the chemical industry with research and innovations.


        S12. Ans.(e)

        Sol. Shavendra Silva has been appointed as 23rd Commander of the Sri Lankan Army by the President of Sri Lanka.


        S13. Ans.(c)

        Sol. The Union Home Ministry has fixed the retirement age of all Central Armed Police Force personnel at 60 years.


        S14. Ans.(b)

        Sol. India celebrates Sadbhavana Diwas to encourage national integration, peace, love, affection and communal harmony among all Indians. The day is celebrated on the  birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.


        S15. Ans.(d)

        Sol. Pakistan Prime Minister Office has announced a 3 year extension of General Qamar Javed Bajwa‘s tenure as Chief of Army Staff.




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        Daily Vocabulary: 21st August 2019

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        daily-vocabulary-for-bank-exams

        To strengthen the crust and core of your English language what you need is new and effective words added to your dictionary every day. This is a tedious task if you sit with the dictionary every day. Adda247 brings to you a compact way of learning constantly and efficiently. This is today's Vocabulary for the aspirants who are preparing for the various banking examinations. SBI Clerk, LIC ADOIBPS RRB, IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk are some of the upcoming examinations which can be prepared with the aid of daily Vocabulary. Vocab will help you excel not just in the examinations but will help you sail through the Interview round of the examinations you are preparing for. The words you choose will accelerate you in the correct path towards success and we hope that this article serves the purpose.

        ONUS(Noun)जिम्मेदारी (संज्ञा)
        Meaning: Something that is one's duty or responsibility.
        Synonyms: burden, responsibility, liability, obligation
        Antonyms: advantage, benefit, blessing
        Example:  The onus of proof lies with the prosecution.

        OBSCENE(Adjective)नृशंस(विशेषण)
        Meaning: offending against moral principles; repugnant.
        Synonyms: shocking, scandalous, vile, foul, atrocious, outrageous
        Antonyms: clean, decent, gentle, magnificent
        Example: The salaries some company directors earn are obscene.

        COUP(Noun)विजय(संज्ञा)
        Meaning: an instance of successfully achieving something difficult.
        Synonyms: success, triumph, feat,
        Antonyms: failure
        Example: There have been seven coup attempts against the beleaguered government.

        EMULATE (verb) नकल (क्रिया)
        Meaning: to use (someone or something) as the model for one's speech, mannerisms, or behavior.
        Synonyms: imitate, reecho, repeat, follow.
        Antonyms: neglect, reprove, proscribe, the affront.
        Example: Josh is trying to emulate the success of his well-accomplished mother.

        PLUCKY (adjective) साहसिक (विशेषण)
        Meaning: having or showing determined courage in the face of difficulties.
        Synonyms:  courageous, intrepid, valiant, valorous.
        Antonyms: timid, timorous, gutless, frightful.
        Example: His plucky attitude made him a great candidate for police officer training academy.

        INCONGRUOUS (adjective) प्रतिकूल (विशेषण)
        Meaning: not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something.
        Synonyms: discordant, conflicting, clashing, inconsistent.
        Antonyms: accordant, compatible, concordant, conformable.
        Example: Wearing a rain jacket in sunny weather is quite incongruous.

        BULGE(Noun)उभार (संज्ञा)
        Meaning: a rounded bump or swelling that juts outward on a surface
        Synonyms: lump, bump
        Antonyms: ingrowth
        Example: The bag was so full that a bulge from the oranges could be seen through the packaging.

        HOARD(Noun)इकट्ठा करना (संज्ञा)
        Meaning: to stockpile or store things excessively
        Synonyms: accumulation, heap
        Antonyms: debt, need
        Example: The shopaholic likes to hoard clothing and has filled three closets with dresses and shoes that she doesn’t need.

        PROLIFERATION(Noun)प्रसार (संज्ञा)
        Meaning: rapid increase in the number or amount of something
        Synonyms: generation, propagation
        Antonyms: reduction
        Example: The proliferation of technology over the last 100 years has happened so quickly and caused many societal changes.





        SBI Clerk Waiting List - 3 Released for 2018 -19 | Check Now

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        Dear Aspirants,

        SBI Clerk Waiting List - 3 Released for 2018-19 | Check Now


        SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Waiting List 2018-19

        State Bank Of India (SBI) has released the 3rd waiting list of the candidates against non joining & resignation for the post of Junior Associates for the year 2018-2019. The Main examination of SBI Clerk 2018 was held on 5th August 2018. Candidates who are in the waiting list, can check their roll number by visiting the link below.

        IBPS PO Prelims Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 21st August 2019

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        ibps-po-prelims-quantitative-aptitude-quiz

        IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude Quiz

        With the increasing level in exams, quantitative aptitude has become the ineluctable hitch. Generally, questions asked in this section are calculative and lengthy that consumes your time. This subject can do wonders if you always keep a check on your accuracy, speed and time. Accuracy is what matters the most. To help you prepare the section we have provided a well-defined IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan. You can also Prepare from the study notes to clear your basic concepts. Attempt this quantitative aptitude quiz and check your performance for the upcoming IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan 2019. Following is the quiz of 21st August, that inculcate the important topic from Pipe and Cistern.
        Q1.Two pipes can fill a cistern in 14 and 16 hours respectively. The pipes are opened simultaneously and it is found that due to leakage in the bottom of the cistern, it takes 32 minutes extra for the cistern to be filled up. When the cistern is full, in what time will the leak empty it ?
        (a) 114 hr
        (b) 112 hr
        (c) 100 hr
        (d) 80 hr
        (e) 120 hr

        Q2. A tank of 3600 cu m capacity is being filled with water. The delivery of the pump discharging the tank is 20% more than the delivery of the pump filling the same tank. As a result, twelve minutes more time is needed to fill the tank than to discharge it. Determine the rate of delivery of the pump filling the tank.
        (a) 40 m³/min
        (b) 50 m³/min
        (c) 60 m³/min
        (d) 80 m³/min
        (e) 58 m³/min

        Q3. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 30 hours while B can fill it in 45 hours. Pipe A and B are opened and closed alternatively i.e., first pipe A is opened, then B, again A and then B and so on for 1 hour each time without any time lapse. In how many hours the tank will be filled when it was empty, initially ?
        (a) 36
        (b) 54
        (c) 48
        (d) 60
        (e) 34

        Q4. Tap A fills a tank in 20 minutes while C empties it at 1/3rd the rate at which A fills it. At 12 : 00 noon, A and C are simultaneously started and when the tank is 50% full, tap A is turned off. At what time will the tank be empty?
        (a) 12 : 35 pm
        (b) 12 : 45 pm
        (c) 12 : 30 pm
        (d) 12 : 55 pm
        (e) 1:00 pm

        Q5. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 15 hours and 10 hours respectively. A tap C can empty the full cistern in 30 hours. All the three taps were open for 2 hours, when it was remembered that the emptying tap had been left open. It was then closed. How much more time would it take for the cistern to be filled? (relative to the case where the emptying tap was closed before opening the filling pipes A and B)
        (a) 30 min.
        (b) 1.2 hours
        (c) 24 min.
        (d) 35 min.
        (e) 45 min.

        Q6. A water tank has three taps A, B and C. A fills four buckets in 24 minutes, B fills 8 buckets in 1 hour and C fills 2 buckets in 20 minutes. If all the taps are opened together a full tank is emptied in 2 hours. If a bucket can hold 5 liters of water, what is the capacity of the tank? (Taps can be used inlet as well as outlet.)
        (a) 120 liters
        (b) 240 liters
        (c) 180 liters
        (d) 60 liters
        (e) 90 liters

        Q7. A water tank normally takes 7 hours to be filled by a tap but because of the leak, it takes another 2 hours. In how many hours will the leak empty a full water tank?
        (a) 20.5 hours
        (b) 24.4 hours
        (c) 30 hours
        (d) 31.5 hours
        (e) 32.5 hours

        Q8. A cistern can be filled separately by two pipes P and Q in 45 minutes and 35 minutes respectively. A tap R at the bottom can empty the full cistern in 30 minutes. If the tap R is opened 7 minutes after the two pipes P and Q are opened then after what time from the opening of tap R the cistern becomes full?
        (a) 40th minute
        (b) 61st minute
        (c) 37th minute
        (d) None of these
        (e) Can’t be determined

        Q9. Pipe A and B can fill a cistern in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. When a third pipe C which works as an outlet pipe is also opened then the cistern can be filled in 18 hours. The outlet pipe can empty a full cistern in :
        (a) 12 hours
        (b) 8 hours
        (c) 9 hours
        (d) 14 hours
        (e) 10  hours

        Q10. A tank of capacity 25 liters has an inlet and an outlet tap. If both are opened simultaneously, the tank is filled in 5 minutes. But if the outlet flow rate is doubled and both taps are opened, the tank never gets filled up. Which of the following can be outlet flow rate in liters/min?
        (a) 2
        (b) 6
        (c) 4
        (d) 3
        (e) 4.5

        Q11. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 15 minutes, 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. All three pipes started to fill the tank at same time. The pipe C is closed 6 minutes before the tank is filled. In what time the tank will be full?
        (a) 6 minutes
        (b) 8 minutes
        (c) 12 minutes
        (d) 14 minutes
        (e) 10 minutes

        Q12. A cistern has two inlet taps (which fill it in 12 minutes and 15 minutes, respectively) and an exhaust tap. When all the three taps are opened together, it takes 20 minutes to fill an empty cistern. How long will the exhaust tap take to empty it?
        (a) 20 minutes
        (b) 16 minutes
        (c) 12 minutes
        (d) 10 minutes
        (e) 14 minutes


        Q14. Three filling pipes P, Q and R can fill an empty tank in 16 hr, 24 hr and 32 hr respectively. They start filling together the tank. After 4 hours pipe R gets closed and other two pipes continue to fill the tank. What is the total time in which the tank will be filled?
        (a) 8.4 hr
        (b) 7.2 hr
        (c) 9.4 hr
        (d) 6.4 hr
        (e) 8 hr

        Q15. There is a hole in a water tank which can empty it in 8 hours. A pipe is opened which fills 6 litre water per minute in tank and now tank is emptied in 12 hours. What is the capacity of the tank?
        (a) 8260 litre
        (b) 8660 litre
        (c) 8640 litre
        (d) 8620 litres
        (e) 8460 litres


        Solutions










        S10. Ans.(b)
        Sol. The net inflow when both pipes are opened is 5 litres a minute.
        The outlet flow should be such that if its rate is doubled the net inflow rate should be negative or 0. Only an option greater than or equal to ‘5’ would satisfy this condition.
        Option (b) is the only possible value.









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        All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB Prelims Result!!

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        GIC Assistant Manager Recruitment 2019: Check Official Notification

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        GIC Assistant Manager Recruitment 2019: Check Official Notification

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 Recruitment

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 official notification has been released. General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) was formed for the purpose of superintending, controlling and carrying on the business of general insurance. GIC has invited online application for the post of Assistant Manager (Scale I). The total number of vacancies is 25.  Aspiring candidates who want to start their career in the Insurance industry can apply online for GIC Assistant Manager 2019 subject to eligibility.

        Important Dates:

        • On line, Registration commences from 21st of August 2019
        • Last Date for Online Registration: 11th of September 2019
        • Payment of Application fees From 21st of August to 11th of September 2019
        • Tentative Date of Online Examination: 5th of October 2019
        • Downloading of call letters for examination commences from Around 10 days prior to the date of examination
        • Online Pre-recruitment training for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates 23rd of September to 26th of September 

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 Educational Qualification:


        Graduate in Engineering/Finance/Commerce/Law/IT, etc with at least 60% marks in degree examination for General & OBC candidates and at least 55% marks for SC/ST candidates.

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 Age Limit (as on 21.08.2019):

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 Age Limit is as follows:
        Minimum Age Limit: 21 Years
        Maximum Age Limit: 30 Years

        GIC Assistant Manager 2019 Salary:

        • The basic pay for Scale I officer is Rs. 32,795 per month. The total gross salary will be approx. Rs. 59, 000 per month.
        • The pay scale of GIC Assistant Manager is Rs. 32795-1610 (14)-55335-1745 (4)-62315 plus admissible allowances and other non-core benefits.


               

        All the Best BA'ians!!

        EXIM Bank Recruitment 2019: Check Official Notification

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        EXIM Bank Recruitment 2019

        Export-Import (EXIM) Bank of India has released the official notification for the Recruitment of Officers in Junior/Middle Management levels for IT Professionals. The total number of vacancies in EXIM Bank 2019 Recruitment is 7. Candidates who are appearing for IBPS PO can follow IBPS PO 2019 Study plan. Moreover, you can also apply for GIC Assistant Manager Recruitment 2019

        Export-Import Bank of India is an all India financial institution engaged in financing, facilitating and promoting India’s international trade, having a network of 19 offices in India and overseas and Learning Centres in Bangalore and Ahmedabad.


        EXIM Bank Recruitment 2019 Important Dates:

        Commencement of Online Registration - 21th August 2019
        Last day for payment of Examination fee - 9th September 2019
        Tentative date of Written Examination -  5th October 2019
        Tentative date of interview -  1st November 2019

        EXIM Bank 2019 Posts & Vacancies:

        Manager - IT (Finacle Developer) - 02
        Manager - IT (Sharepoint/.Net Developer) - 01
        Deputy Manager - IT (Developer) - 04

        EXIM Bank 2019 Apply Online Link:

        The apply online of  EXIM Bank 2019 has been activated. Interested Candidates can apply from the link mentioned below.



              


        Ultimate Live Batch-IBPS PO Prelims 2019

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        We are feeling exuberant to see how meticulously students have started preparing for IBPS PO Prelims 2019. As the IBPS has released the official notification to recruit 4336 candidates as a probationary officer under IBPS which is going to be held on October 2019.The IBPS PO Prelims exam is around the corner and students are very serious to decide on the best study material that can help them to get through this reputed exam.




        We are overwhelmed to announce that after the release of the IBPS PO 2019 notification, we have received many queries in the same regard. Now finally we are here to end your anxiety on how you can start your preparation for the much-awaited exam i.e IBPS PO Prelims 2019. This live batch has made keeping in mind the needs of the working aspirants who can not attend the morning or evening batch and are more comfortable with the night classes with complete learning in English.These Ultimate IBPS PO Prelims live batch is a complete package for your sure shot selection in the exam.
        Wants to know what is ULTIMATE IBPS PO Prelims Live batch 2019? Read here: 
        "Ultimate" is the complete package that you will need to end all the problems that can hinder your achievements. The package is made keeping in mind all the needs of banking aspirants. You can take the benefit of it for other banking examinations as well. The focus of this package is to teach you the basics of the chapters to advance level to tackle with even the hardest situation in the exam.

        Benefits of the Package/ What will you get in this Live batch
        • 560+ Hours of interactive Live Classes. (2 hours Class followed by 1-hour doubt class).
        • 1100+ Practice Questions (Topic-wise Tests).
        • 7 Full Length All India Mock Tests (Including 2 previous mocks)
        • eBooks -
        • Ace Reasoning (English & Hindi Edition)
        • Ace Quant (English & Hindi Edition)
        • Ace English eBooks (English Edition)
        • Concepts, Approaches & Questions Based on the Latest Pattern asked in 2019. 

        A scheduled about the classes will be provided so that you are aware of the upcoming sessions.


        A schedule of the classes will be provided to you so that you do not miss out any session. The amazing part of this package is that this course will have four batches a day. First, three will be bilingual and the fourth will be completed in English. If you missed attending any of the batches you have joined, you can attend the same class in the next batch on the same day. What can be better than this offer?

        Timing of the Ultimate IBPS PO Prelims 2019 Live batch

        Timings for the Daily Classes are:
        • 7:30 AM to 10:30 AM | Batch 1 (Bilingual)
        • 11 AM-2:00 PM | Batch 2 (Bilingual)
        • 3:30 PM to 6:30 PM | Batch 3 (Bilingual)
        • 7:30 PM to 10:30 PM | Batch 4 (English)


         Note: The Batch will begin on 17th August 2019. You can enroll for it, from now. Click here for more details.


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