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Join Our Team!! Mega Recruitment Drive on 14th September

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Adda247 is conducting a Mega Recruitment Drive this Saturday, 14th Sept from 10 AM to 4 PM to hire energetic, enthusiastic minds to join our teams of Content Developers, Translators and Content Experts.

We are a team of over 400 dedicated minds curating content specialised for every Bank, SSC, Railways, Defence and Teaching Jobs. Established in 2010 with the name of Career Power, Adda247 has been focusing on the growth and proper training of the brightest minds in the country preparing for SSC, Bank PO, CGL exams etc.

Adda247 is the largest and fastest-growing education-technology company that houses multiple platforms such as Adda247 mobile app, Adda247 Youtube channel, bankersadda.com, sscadda.com, ctetadda.com and Career Power. It mainly focuses on helping the unemployed youth of the country to land up with a decent job in both Government Sectors as well as Public Sectors.

Discover a world of opportunities by getting onboard with Team Adda247! Are you ready for this?

How can you apply for this Mega Recruitment Drive?

This is a Walk-in Recruitment drive being conducted by Adda247 on 14th September, Saturday. You can visit our Gurugram office from 10 AM to 4PM. Please also email your updated CV to content.hiring@adda247.com Keep the subject of your email as -<Your Name> - Post you are applying for - <City you are from>

What are the posts open in this Mega Recruitment Drive by Adda247?

The following are the profiles we are hiring for, you can apply for any 1 among them:

CONTENT DEVELOPERS (Subject Experts)

Choose from the following subjects (any 1) :

Content Developer- Bank Exams
  • Reasoning for Bank Exams
  • Quantitative Aptitude for Bank Exams
  • English Language for Bank Exams
  • GA for Bank Exams

Content Developer- SSC Exams
  • Quantitative Aptitude for SSC Exams
  • English Language for SSC Exams
  • GS for SSC Exams

Content Developer- Defence Exams
  • Maths for Defence Exams
  • English Language for Defence Exams
  • GS for Defence Exams

Content Developer- Teaching Exams
  • SST for Teaching Exams
  • Maths and Science for Teaching Exams

Content Expert for JAIIB and CAIIB EXAMS

We are looking for Content Experts who can create content specialised for JAIIB and CAIIB exams for bankers and banking aspirants.

TRANSLATOR

We are Hiring Translator who should be fluent in typing and translating English Language Content to the Hindi Language. Experienced candidates will be preferred.  

What will be in the recruitment process?

The recruitment process will include a test and/or interview(s) depending upon the profile you are applying for. Please also send your CV to us on content.hiring@adda247.com

What are the required documents that you should carry?

Please carry copies your updated CV along with passport size photograph.

Visit: 1005, 10th Floor, Tower- C, Unitech cyber park, Gurgaon Sector 39, Gurgaon - 122001, Near- Huda Metro Station

14th September, 10 AM to 4 PM




Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019: Official Notification & Apply Online

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Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019

Karur Vysya Bank has release the notification for the recruitment of Business Development Associate (on contract) for CASA Sales (Karnataka Bank). Candidates who will be appointed as Business Development Associate (BDA) will have to perform marketing of Bank CASA products.






Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019: Important Dates

Commencement of Online Registration: 24th July 2019
Closure of Online Registration: 23rd October 2019

Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019:Eligibility

The eligibility criteria includes age limit, academic qualification, desirable experience & other information.

Age Limit (as on 30th June 2019):
  • Minimum Age Limit: 21 Years
  • Maximum Age Limit: 28 Years
Candidates should have been born not earlier than 01.07.1991 and not later than 30.06.1998 (both days inclusive).

Academic Qualification:
  • Any candidate who has completed Under Graduate Degree under regular course from a college affiliated to a recognized University with minimum 50% marks.
  • Any Educational Qualification obtained through Correspondence or Open University is NOT eligible.
Desirable Experience & Other Information:
  • Candidates with minimum 6 months experience in sale of BFSI products is preferred. Freshers can also apply.
  • Candidates should be proficient in Local language where he is posted.
  • Candidates should have working knowledge in English.

Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019: Mode of Selection

Screening of Candidates will be done by conducting personal interview (PI). Date of Interview and Venue will be communicated by the Bank to the individual candidates through registered e-mail only. Selected candidates may be posted in the same area based on the vacancy requirement of candidates in the particular city/area.

Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019: Salary

The selected candidates will be appointed on contract basis for a period of three years and the salary would be on consolidated basis of Rs.18000/- onwards. Moreover, eligible for performance based incentive on monthly basis declared by the bank from time to time.



Current Affairs In Tamil For Bank Exam | Video Course Added In Bank Supreme

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Current Affairs In Tamil For Bank Exam | Video Course Added In Bank Supreme

As you all know a number of banking exams are lined up ahead and its time to start the preparation in a new and innovative way that will help you ace in the bank exams. Video course provides us a medium for easy learning. They can be accessed as per our convenience and keeping the fact in the mind we introduced bank Video supreme subscription. Which is a complete package to ensure sure shot selection in the banking sector, and as we conveyed we regularly and timely keep on adding the new package whenever there is a new vacancy in the banking sector. We received a joyous response for the same and many queries to add the videos for current affairs in the Tamil language. Now, Adda247 is introducing a new video course to cover the current affairs section in the Tamil language. Current affairs are considered to be the game-changer in every exam. If you were having difficulty in learning the Current affairs now we are back again with the solution.

A new video course Current affairs for bank exams in Tamil have been added in the bank supreme package. It is an added advantage to the bank supreme holders without paying the extra cost to learn the current affairs section in their desired language. What are you waiting for? Make the best out of this video course package and start your preparation for the upcoming banking exams. It is the right time to kick start your preparations with Adda247 bank supreme package, the solution to all your banking needs.



The Features of the Supreme Subscription is as follows:
  • Unlimited Access to all video courses of an Exam, Test series, and eBooks.
  • New Video courses are added on a regular basis
  • Study at your own pace
  • Courses from Best Teachers in India
  • Videos are based on the latest exam pattern
  • Doubt Solving sessions for the students
  • Crash Courses for various exams will be available.
  • Value for Money gets access to multiple exams at a time.
  • Language of your choice, available in Hindi and English.

Get access to lot many videos at just Rs 417 per month. Enjoy learning at your fingertips. The updated videos have been started on 5th September 2019. Moreover, the videos will be available in both Hindi and English medium and now Reasoning in Tamil have been added to the same.






How To Prepare For IBPS PO At Home Without Coaching

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How To Prepare For IBPS PO At Home Without Coaching

 IBPS PO At Home Without Coaching 


Are you a banking exam aspirant? Worry on to decide the best study material for the upcoming banking exams? Do not want to step outside and prepare for other bank exams? Adda247 brings you the best way to start your preparation for IBPS PO at home that too without coaching and investing your hard-earned money. do not worry about your preparations, in this article we will be discussing the IBPS PO preparation tips without taking up coaching for the bank exams.


As there are many exams which are lined up to take place this year. Like IBPS RRB PO/Clerk is having their mains. IBPS PO is scheduled to be held in October. IBPS Clerk/SO is soon to be out and Nabard has also declared the vacancies for the Development Assistant post. The year is stuffed with a number of examination and list of opportunities to be grabbed. The foremost thing is to prepare for these vacancies. Competitive examinations need full dedication and commitment. Everyone has only 24 hours in a day and what makes the difference is how he/she utilizes these hours. There are many students who think it is not possible to crack the government exam while sitting at home. In this era of technology when the world is getting virtualized it is unreasonable to think that way. 

Before we proceed with the IBPS PO exam preparation tips, one should be very well versed with the exam pattern. IBPS PO and every bank exam are conducted through online mode only. IBPS PO pre consists of 100 questions that carry 100 marks in total whereas IBPS PO mains exam consists of a total 155 questions with the weigtage of 200 marks. questions will be in multiple-choice format and you will have to select the one that suits best. For every wrong answer marked by you, the penalty of one-fourth marks assigned against each question will be deducted. So the main focus should be your accuracy.

Is it possible to crack IBPS PO and other bank exams without coaching?
Getting shortlisted and securing a seat in IBPS as an officer is a dream of many but not everyone gets a chance to accomplish their dreams. How can they aspire what they desire? What is that way which can lead them to success? Well, one should start the preparation for the bank exams right from the day they make it their goal. The ideal preparation start from the day when you think of doing it. To kick start off your preparations you need to be very determined to churn out a career in the banking sector.
Due to the peer pressure or parents pressure, sometimes you may think that it won't be possible to clear the exam without coaching. But this is absolutely a thoughtless statement. Clearing any exam depends on how serious you are for it and the way you practice for the same.

In this era of technology where you have access to a number of free online, youtube videos and also paid online live classes, you can easily learn anything everywhere at your fingertips. You can also follow bankersadda and Adda247 official youtube channel to regularize your studies with the best and updated free study material.

Do you ever think what is that one difference that makes one to pass these bank PO exams and to fail in the same? It is your attitude and preparations towards IBPS PO and other bank exams that make you successful to live your dreams. Only regularize hard work can help you in passing IBPS PO exam not the coaching institutes. There is no alternative for hard work. Be self-determined.

Now the question arises, How to prepare for IBPS PO at home without coaching?

Here are some Tips to Crack IBPS PO without coaching to get the PO jobs and Ace in PO exams.

Below are the mentioned tips to get PO jobs or to ace in PO exams, that have been compiled by our experts and toppers who have cracked the bank PO exam just by following the Adda247 platform for their IBPS recruitment needs.

Early Preparation
It has been observed that those who start their preparation early or on time are likely to crack IBPS PO and bank exams more easily. This helps in having the depts knowledge of the topics and subjects which you can not acquire in the definite or less period of time. Starting your preparation gives you more time to take a mock test for IBPS and bank exams and to work efficiently on your weak points.

Plan and strategy
It is important to have a well planned and organized strategy for PO exams to get the PO jobs. It would be needless to say that every student has their own strategy and planning to crack IBPS PO and Bank exams. One need not adopt and rely on other strategies to pass the IBPS exams. However, they should always follow the best that suits them. Adding to the above statement, it is important to stick to your strategy and not to make instant changes in that. This may hamper your efficiency.

Exam pattern and syllabus
To begin with the bank PO exam preparation it is important to know about the Bank PO syllabus. Knowing the IBPS PO syllabus will help you to categorize where to start from what all you need to cover and what topics need more attention. Knowing the bank PO exam pattern and syllabus will help you to finalize your strategy for IBPS PO exam 2019.

Free Online study material and Videos
You can take the help of free study material which is easily available for banking aspirant. Visit bankersadda for all your banking needs. Also if you have a doubt regarding anything you can ask the moderators present over there. Get access to unlimited free online videos on Adda247 youtube channel and start preparing for bank exams right away.

Video Course/Online live Class
Online live classes are the best way to prepare for IBPS recruitment at home. You can take the classes as per the given schedule followed by the doubt session. Is not it a good deal? Also, you have the option to buy the recorded sessions in the form of video course which you can access as per your convenience.

Doubt Clearance
It is very important and the foremost thing that one should follow. Do not move further on other topics if you have a doubt regarding any question or topic. This may lose you marks. It is suggested to always clear your doubts to carry on the preparation smoothly.

Regular Revision
Revising is always important for Bank PO exams. When you revise the syllabus and required topics, you brush-up the already read facts, which further helps in memorizing it. With the regular revision, banking aspirants can keep up with the latest information even as keeping intact the previously read topics. Do not forget the fact that the human brain has a unique property of keeping all the regularly revised things intact for a longer period of time, as required.

Analyze previous year's papers
The banking aspirants should also check the previous years’ question papers. analysing the previous year's question papers will help them to know the type of questions they may attempt in the Real test. Adding onto this, when aspirants start preparing for the Bank entrance examination, they should analyze previous years’ question papers which will also help in getting an overview of the questions and their difficulty level so that they can tackle with the situation easily.

Online Mock test
The bank aspirants should take online mock tests as they will help them in analyzing their actual preparation level. The mock tests are the best way to analyze and find out the subjects, topics, and questions in which the bank aspirants lag behind. Even the experts and toppers suggest taking the mock tests as soon as the bank aspirants have completed their basic preparation.

Time Management
This is one of the most important traits that should be honed when you are preparing for examinations like banking and PO jobs. There will be as many as 155 questions to be attempted in 120 minutes, which means for each question, you’ll have less than a minute or a few seconds. The art of managing time to read the question, attempt one question needs to be learned while you are getting prepared for IBPS PO exam.

This can only be learned when you revise regularly the whole stuff, practice questions on a daily basis, take regular mock tests and analyze your banking preparation.

Weakness and strengths
A candidate is a person who knows his own capabilities, strength, and weaknesses. As a banking aspirant, you’ll get to know about the subjects which you have a good command over and also the subjects that need to be polished. The next processes are even simple. Enhance your capabilities, efficiency and clear all your doubts not to leave any loophole.

Reroute all your motivation and root out demotivation
No doubt a candidate should be self-motivated. It should reflect in your attitude and behavior. It’s you who is putting so many efforts, burning the midnight oil, working hard and improving on your weak points on a daily basis, you should have faith in yourself that you can reach your goal. Reroute all your attention to your main objective and root out every negative point that you have in your mind.

We hope we have managed to clear all your doubts, But if you still have any issue you can let our moderators know about it below in the comment section or you can mail us at blogger@adda247.com. Our experts will reach you shortly.


Preparing for IBPS PO 2019? Click here to get free study material and regular updates.

       

All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB Prelims Results 2019!!

IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 10th September 2019

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IBPS-RRB-PO/Clerk-Mains-Quantitative-Aptitude-Quiz

IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Quantitative Quiz

Do you follow a proper strategy or Study Plan for IBPS RRB Mains 2019? Are you aiming IBPS RRB 2019 this time? If yes, then this is the section which can help you to do wonders if practiced well. A good attempt with a mix of accuracy can help you fetch good marks. The reasoning is a game of wits and mind. It is all about logics that a question may have. Speed and accuracy are what that matters the most in this section. The only way to achieve an ambitious goal is by practicing only. So, attempt the quiz of Reasoning ability that inculcates the important questions from the important topics. Do not miss out to practice the Quantitative Aptitude Quiz that is being provided on Bankersadda.


Directions (1-2): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option 

Q1. The length of a passenger train moving at a speed of 45km/h is 250m. The length of a Rajdhani train is 750m which can move at a maximum speed of 135km/h.
Quantity I: Time taken by the passenger train to cross a person standing on the platform.
Quantity II: Time taken by the passenger train to cross the Rajdhani train coming from opposite direction.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Q2. There are 3 vessels A, B and C full of mixture of milk and water. Vessel A contains 5 liters of water and 25 liters of milk, Vessel B contains 15 liters of water and 30 liters of milk and Vessel C contains water and milk in the ratio 1 : 5. 20%, 40% and 30% of the total mixtures from vessels A, B and C respectively is taken and poured into a fourth vessel. The ratio of milk and water in the fourth vessel is 16 : 5
Quantity I: Capacity of vessel C in litres. 
Quantity II: 80 litres. 
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q3. P, Q and R can complete a piece of work in 8, 12 and 24 days respectively. They work on alternate days.
Quantity I: Time taken by them to complete the work if P works on day 1, Q works on day 2 and R works on day 3 and so on.
Quantity II: Time taken by them to complete the work if Q works on day 1, R works on day 2 and P works on day 3 and so on.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q4. There are two bags A and B. Bag A contains 5 red, 3 green and 4 blue balls while Bag B contains 8 blue, 4 green and 6 red balls.
Quantity I: Probability of getting at most 1 red ball if 3 balls are drawn at random from Bag B.
Quantity II: Probability of getting at least 2 red balls if 3 balls are drawn at random from Bag A.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q5. Quantity I→Sudhir invested Rs. 16000 in a scheme which earned him simple interest @ 15% per annum. After two years he withdrew the principal amount plus interest and invested the entire amount in another scheme for two years, which earned him compound interest @ 12% per annum. Total interest earned by Sudhir at the end of 4 years. 
Quantity II → Sumit lent some money to Mohit at 5% per annum simple interest. Mohit lent the entire amount to Birju on the same day at 8 1/2% per annum. In this transaction after a year Mohit earned a profit of Rs. 350. Find the sum of money lent by Sumit to Mohit.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q6. Quantity I – Selling price of radio to gain 12.5%. A dealer sold a radio at a loss of 2.5%. Had he sold it for Rs 100 more, he would have gained 7.5% . 
Quantity II – Marked Price of article. A jobber buys an article for “Rs. 24 less 12.5% of 24.” He then wishes to sell the article at a gain ofof his cost after allowing a 20% discount on his marked price.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q7. The respective ratio between the Minakshi’s age after 3 years and Abhay’s age 3 years ago is 10 : 9 and the respective ratio between the Minakshi’s age 3 years ago and Abhay’s age after 3 years is 17 : 21. What is Minakshi’s present age ? (in years). 
(a) 39
(b) 35
(c) 43
(d) 41
(e) 37
Q8. There are three positive numbers, 1/3 rd of average of all the three numbers is 8 less than the value of the highest number. Average of lowest and the second lowest number is 8. Which is the highest number ? 
(a) 11
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 9
(e) 13
Directions (9-10): Answer these questions based on the information given below.
There are five members A, B, C, D and E in a family. Ratio of ages of A and B five years ago was 3 : 4. Sum of ages of D and E five years hence will be 90. If C were born four years later than his actual date of birth, Age of C would be half to that of E. 

Q9. What is the age of D four years ago, if the current age of C is 27 years? 
(a) 36 years 
(b) 34 years 
(c) 38 years 
(d) 30 years 
(e) Cannot be determined 
Q10. After 3 years, A will be 20 years old. What is the average of current ages of A, B, D and E together? 
(a) 29 years 
(b) 29.5 years 
(c) 30 years 
(d) 30.5 years 
(e) Cannot be determined 
Directions (11-15): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. 
Table shows the number of students passed and failed in five different engineering branches, who were in their engineering  final year over the years 
Q11. Average of students failed in civil branch over all year is approximately what percent more or less than the average of students failed in electrical branch overall years?
(a) 23%
(b) 25%
(c) 21%
(d) 18%
(e) 26%
Q12. What is the ratio of students passed from all branches in year 2005 to the students passed in IT branch over all year?
(a) 53/71
(b) 38/53
(c) 45/61
(d) 23/40
(e) 45/53

Q13. If in year 2000 students failed in CS branch is 150% of students failed in CS branch in 2005, then students failed in 2000 from CS branch are what percent of students passed from Electrical and civil branch together in year 2002? (approximately)
(a) 20%
(b) 16%
(c) 22%
(d) 18%
(e) 14%
Q14. Percentage of students passed from mechanical branch overall years is what percent more or less than percentage of students passed in electrical branch overall years. (approximately)
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) None of these
Q15. Find the difference between total number of passed students from all branches in year 2006 and total passed students in IT branch overall years?
(a) 51
(b) 63
(c) 75
(d) 82
(e) 91
If you want to study Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS PO Mains then you can also check out the video given below:

You may also like to Read:

All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main


Ramanathapuram District Cooperative Bank Recruitment 2019: Check Here

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Ramanathapuram District Cooperative Bank Recruitment 2019

Ramanathapuram District Cooperative Bank has released the official notification for the recruitment of Assistant/Clerk post. The total number of vacancies is 38. The selected candidates will be posted in Ramanathapuram, Tamilnadu. The complete information Ramanathapuram central District cooperative Bank notification 2019 is given below.

Important Dates:

Commencement of online registration: 28th August 2019
Closure of online registration: 26th September 2019
Date of online examination: 24th November 2019

Age Limit:

The minimum & maximum age limit is as follow:

Minimum Age Limit: 18 Years
Maximum Age Limit: 30 Years

Educational Qualification:

  • Candidate should have completed any Degree from the recognized university.
  • Those who have done cooperative training can only apply for this recruitment.
  • Applicant must possess basic knowledge in computer applications.

Application Fees:

The online application fee is Rs.250. SC/ ST/ PWD and Destitute widow candidates are exempted from the fees payment


          

Upcoming Government Exams 2019: Discussion on Important Topics | Live Now!

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Dear Aspirants,




As we know, Important government examinations like IBPS RRB PO, IBPS RRB, IBPS PO, and other elite banking/insurance exams are coming. Aspirants have lots of quires related to how to prepare for Group Discussion. Each examination requires altogether a different strategy, so to help you achieve your goals this time Adda247 has planned to have give tips for Group Discussion. We hope our initiative will be fruitful for your future and will help you achieve your dreams.



DateTopics
10th September
ISRO Space Mission

We will have the discussion on the same page at 5 PM. Stay Tuned


Discussion is Live!
We hope you guys will appreciate the efforts and participate in the quiz and discussion. 

If you want to watch The Top 20 Banking Awareness MCQ for IBPS RRB PO Mains, IBPS RRB Clerk and IBPS PO Prelims then you can also check out the video given below:




  

IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Maha Mock- Free PDF

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IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Maha Mock- Free PDF

IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Maha Mock was conducted on 9th September and a number of students participate with great enthusiasm to keep a check on their performance. Result for the maha mock has been declared for which 83 marks as cut off have been decided by our expert team keeping in mind the various factors like types of question, the difficulty level of the question and the number of students who take the IBPS RRB Clerk mains maha mock-1. We hope you all had a chance to know about your weak points and now you can work to improve on them. In case any student who is appearing for the actual IBPS RRB exam missed attempting the maha mock, Adda247 is giving them the opportunity to re-attempt the test in the form of Free maha mock PDF. Adda247 is providing IBPS RRB Clerk mains maha mock-1 free PDF to all the aspirants so that they can again test on their capabilities and work to improve their efficiency.


Revising from Practice papers always help in identifying one's weak points. And this is the reason we are proving a chance in the form of free PDF for the Maha mock held on 9th September. As you all know IBPS RRB Clerk Mains is scheduled to be held on 29th September 2019 which is cheek by jowl now. Its time to pedal the medal and gear up your preparation for the IBPS RRB Clerk mains 2019. Do practice with the IBPS RRB Clerk Mains maha mock Free PDF to get in touch with the latest trend in the banking sector.






IBPS RRB Mains Computer Quiz: 10th September

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Dear Aspirants,
ibps-rrb-computer-quiz

IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Computer Quiz

Computer Knowledge section can help you to improve your overall score if in case other sections are tougher than the expectation. We are providing you with a question set based on the types and patterns of questions asked in the Computer Knowledge section in previous years.
We already rolled the study plan for IBPS RRB MAINS 2019Computer Quiz of 8th September 2019 covers Topic DBMS



Q1.Which among the following is not a valid key in a relational database model?

(a) Primary Key

(b) Candidate Key

(c) Foreign Key

(d) Track Key

(e) Super Key


S1. Ans. (d)
Sol. All others are valid keys except for the track key.

Q2.Queries in Access can be used as:

(a) View, change and analyze data in different ways

(b) A source of records for forms and reports

(c) to access internet

(d) Both a and b

(e) None of these


S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Using a query makes it easier to view, add, delete, or change data in your Access database. Some other reasons for using queries: Find specific quickly data by filtering on specific criteria (conditions), Calculate or summarize data. Automate data management tasks, such as reviewing the most current data on a recurring basis.

Q3.Which of the following diagrams graphically represents an inter-relationship among entities in a database?

(a) Entity-relationship diagram

(b) Data flow diagram

(c) Control flow diagram

(d) Sequence diagram

(e) None of these


S3. Ans. (a)

Sol. A relationship is an association among entities. We can use the Entity-Relationship Diagram (ERD) to represent an inter-relationship between the entities of a database.

Q4.What key uniquely identifies a record in a database table?

(a) Main key

(b) Principal key

(c) Foreign key

(d) Primary key

(e) None of these


S4. Ans.(d)

Sol. A primary key is a key in a relational database that is unique for each record. It is a unique identifier, such as a driver's license number, telephone number (including area code), or vehicle identification number (VIN), etc.

Q5.Which of the following is/are the primary feature(s) of DBMS? 

(a) To provide an environment that is congenial to user

(b) To store the information

(c) To retrieve information

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above


S5. Ans.(d)

Sol. The Primary goal of DBMS is to provide a convenient environment to retrieve and store database information.

Q6. The most widely used type of database management system is the:

(a) Flat database

(b) Network database

(c) Relational database

(d) Hierarchical database

(e) None of the above

S6.Ans.(c)
Sol. A relational database management system (RDBMS) is a database management system (DBMS) that is based on the relational model as invented by E. F. Codd. Relational databases have often replaced legacy hierarchical databases and network databases because they are easier to understand and use.


Q7.Which among the following is an organized collection of data about a single entity?

(a) file

(b) database

(c) dictionary

(d) library

(e) None of these


S7.Ans. (e)

Sol. Record is the correct answer, as it is not in the given options none of these is correct.

Q8. Which of the following tools is used to tell the database management system that a specific attribute contains numbers only?

(a) Data category

(b) Data type

(c) Data dictionary

(d) Data definition

(e) None of these


S8. Ans. (b)

Sol. A data type is used to tell the database management system that a specific attribute contains numbers only.

Q9.Which one of the following is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record?

(a) Candidate key

(b) Subkey

(c) Super key

(d) Foreign key

(e) None of these

S9. Ans. (c)
Sol. Super key is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.

Q10.For each attribute of relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the __________ of that attribute.

(a) Domain

(b) Relation

(c) Set

(d) Schema

(e) None of these


S10. Ans. (a)

Sol. Set of permitted values is called the domain of that attribute.

 (Relation is a table. Attributes describe the instances in the row of a database.) 


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How to Prepare General Awareness for RRB Mains 2019

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How to Prepare General Awareness for RRB Mains 2019

IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I (PO) prelims exam has been concluded. Its result can be declared at any time. The mains exam of RRB has been delayed but it can be scheduled just after prelims examination results. Candidates preparing for the examination who are sure to get through the prelims should not wait for the results of prelims and start preparing for mains examination as soon as possible. The candidate needs to go through the IBPS RRB (PO) 2019 Mains Syllabus to get the whole perspective of the mains examination. Candidates who are interested in serving rural areas must go through the IBPS RRB examination through which they can handle the financial institution of rural India.

When we look at the IBPS RRB (PO) Prelims examination, it consists of two sections: quantitative aptitude and reasoning ability. However, the mains examination of IBPS RRB (PO) consists of 5 sections which include Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, General Awareness, English / Hindi and Computer Knowledge. 

General Awareness (GA) is an intrinsic part of mains examination of RRB. The General Awareness portion is a marks fetching portion of the mains stage if prepared with dedication and the right strategy. This section is generally given the least importance by the candidate which is why most of the candidates fail to get good marks in mains examination. GA is very helpful not only for conquering extra marks in mains but also for the interview process. To ace through the general awareness section, we will provide you the best plan.

General Awareness Preparation Plan 2019

Are you someone who wants to improve general awareness performance in IBPS RRB Mains? 

To achieve a specific goal, a particular plan is needed. Through this article, we are going to help the candidates to ace the general awareness section. Here is a plan which can help you in achieving the desired goal. 

Previous Year Papers and Mocks: The first and foremost thing you must do to improve your general awareness performance is practicing as many questions as possible. Going through the previous year papers will not only help you in getting an idea about the type of topics to focus on but also enhances your knowledge. Practice mocks and Previous year question paper for IBPS RRB as practice is the key to success.

Read Newspaper:  General awareness portion contains both static as well as current affairs portion. To keep yourself updated with the current affairs, read the newspaper daily. Reading newspapers can help you in getting authentic information about an event happening around. Also, it can help you ace through the interview section. Focus more on economy current affairs.

Daily quizzes: Try to do 5-10 quizzes daily to reduce the chance of wrong attempts. Sometimes quizzes provide some extra information and hidden part of general awareness. You can simply start with our bankersadda quiz section for general awareness. It ranges from one-liner to a current affair quiz. 

Static GK: For other static portions, read magazines or notes provided on our website which help you in having a comprehensive overview of the subject matters. Read all the details about the banking institutions and their functioning. 

Important Topics of General Awareness for RRB 2019

You can neither read all the general awareness topic nor everything is important. Knowledge of everything is good but when it is about clearing an examination, your main focus should be preparing the topics which are relevant to the particular examination. IBPS RRB exam is particularly a banking examination which recruits candidates in the rural areas. Its general awareness section is almost predictable. 

Let's have a look to ace through the examination:

Static GK
  • National parks and wildlife centuries
  • Country and currency
  • Indian culture 
  • Important airport and stadium

Current Affairs
  • Government schemes and policies 
  • News related to banking and economy
  • News of national and international importance
  • Famous book and their authors
  • Important dates and events
  • Important everyday event

Financial and Banking awareness
  • RBI and its functions
  • Exchange rates
  • National and international trade
  • Functions of other important financial institutions like NABARD, SEBI, etc
  • Banking acronyms

Economy
  • Union and state budget
  • GDP
  • News norms of RBI, etc.

General awareness can help in getting information about events and will also enhance your score. Start preparing for the exam today with this guide for general awareness. For more details on IBPS RRB (PO) mains 2019 keep on reading other related articles on our websites. 






 

HDFC Bank Recruitment Future Bankers Program | Registration Open

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HDFC Bank Recruitment Future Bankers Program

HDFC Bank has launched Future Bankers Program. HDFC Bank Future Bankers is a 1 year professional diploma program by HDFC Bank in collaboration with Manipal University, one of India’s elite educational institutions. This program has been structured to provide a “real world” experience to future banking aspirants.

According to the official website of HDFC Bank, the first batch will commence from September 2019.  The Bank will continue taking registrations for the ensuing batches, so if you are interested, please 'Apply Now'.

How to Enroll in HDFC Bank Future Bankers Program?

Here are the steps to enroll in HDFC Bank Future Bankers Program:
  • Fill the Application Form.
  • Take the Online Assessment Test.
  • Successful candidates will have to appear for Personal Interview.

HDFC Bank Future Bankers Program: Internship Schedule

  • Classroom Learning Program - 6 months at Manipal campus, Banglore. 
  • Internship - 3 months Internship at any HDFC bank branch.
  • On the Job Training - 3 months On the job training at any HDFC bank branch.
The Programme Fees  is Rs. 3.30 Lacs + Taxes.

Stipend & Growth Opportunities

For the duration of HDFC Bank Future Bankers Program, successful candidates are eligible for a stipend as follows:
  • First 6 months (Classroom learning) – Rs. 5,000/- per month
  • Next 3 months (Internship) – Rs. 10,000/- per month
  • Final 3 months (On the job training) - Rs. 10,000/- per month
Successful Candidates will be awarded Post Graduate Diploma in Sales & Relationship Banking. Moreover, the Job seeker will be provided a Job Opportunity as a Personal Banker at the grade of Deputy Manager with HDFC bank on successful completion of the course.


 


Daily Current Affairs 10th September 2019 | Daily GK Update

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Dear Aspirants,

General awareness section is the most important part of every competitive exam, it can help you score well in the exam if you are updated with all the current news. Banking Awareness, Static GK and the current news are the parts that make the GA section complete. It is important to know what is happening in and outside of India. GK updates are incorporated with the important news that made the headlines today. It is the complete bag of the important news that held all day long. One should have complete knowledge about the banking termscurrent affairs newsetc. So, here is the GK update of 10th September to help you prepare the Current affairs part. After reading this section, you can successfully attempt Current Affairs Quiz.

Daily-GK-Update-10th-September-2019

National News

1. 1st Helicopter summit 2019 held in Dehradun



i. The Ministry of Civil Aviation organised India's first-ever helicopter summit in Dehradun. The Indian Air Force was invited at the summit to talk on the "role of IAF helicopters in MEDEVAC (Medical evacuation) at the national level. The conclave was attended by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat, the Aviation Secretary, and the Chief Secretary of Uttrakhand.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB Main 2019:
  • Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Civil Aviation: Hardeep Singh Puri.

Banking

2. RBI to launch a mobile app for visually impaired



i. Reserve Bank Of India (RBI) is to implement the idea to develop a mobile application with an aim to help the visually impaired people to identify currency notes. For this, RBI has selected Daffodil Software Pvt Ltd.
ii. The application should be able to identify the denomination of legal tender banknotes of Mahatma Gandhi Series and Mahatma Gandhi (New) series by capturing the image of the notes that are placed in front of the mobile camera or scrolled across it. The mobile application should be searchable via voice option in all app stores.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB Main 2019:
  • RBI 25th Governor: Shaktikant Das; Headquarters: Mumbai; Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

3. IPPB rolls out Aadhaar-enabled payment services



i. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) rollout of Aadhaar Enabled Payment System Services (AePS). With AePS services, any person with a bank account linked to Aadhaar can perform basic banking services such as cash withdrawals and balance enquiry irrespective of the bank they hold their account with.
ii. IPPB has become the single largest platform in the country for providing interoperable banking services to customers of any bank by leveraging the last mile unprecedented reach of the Postal network.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
  • Managing Director & CEO of IPPB: Suresh Sethi; Established: 1 September 2018.

        Appointment

        4. Rajiv Kumar appointed as the new MD of Microsoft India (R&D)


        i. Microsoft has appointed Rajiv Kumar as the new managing director of Microsoft India Research and Development Pvt Ltd (MIRPL). He is currently served as a Corporate Vice-President of Microsoft's Experiences and Devices (E+D) Group. He will replace Anil Bhansali, who held this role for six years.

        Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB Main 2019:
        • CEO of Microsoft: Satya Nadella.

          5. Justice Vikram Nath appointed as Chief Justice of Gujarat High Court



          i. Justice Vikram Nath has been appointed as the chief justice of theGujarat High Court. The Supreme Court Collegium had recommended the name of Justice Nath for the top post in the Gujarat High Court. He is at present posted as a judge in the Allahabad High Court.

          Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
          • Chief Justice of India: Ranjan Gogoi; Supreme Court established: 28 January 1950.

            Agreements

            6. H-Energy & KSPL partners for regasification project



            i. Hiranandani Group energy arm H-Energy has signed a port service agreement with Kakinada Seaports Limited. As per the agreement, they will develop a liquified natural gas (LNG) regasification and reloading terminal at Kakinada port
            ii. The project will cater to the needs of domestic customers in the state of Andhra Pradesh. KSPL has the concession for Kakinada Deep Water Port from the Government of Andhra Pradesh.

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS RRB PO Mains:
            • CEO of H-Energy: Darshan Hiranandani.

              Awards

              7. Odia Writer Pradeep Dash to receive 40th Sarala Puraskar



              i. Noted Odia writer Pradeep Dash will be conferred with the 40th edition of prestigious Sarala Puraskar for his poetry work Charu Chibar O Charjya. The annual award, comprising a cash prize of Rs 5 lakh and a citation.
              ii. The annual Sarala Puraskar instituted by eminent Odia industrialist Late Bansidhar Panda and Late Ila Panda in 1979, has been continuously awarded by Indian Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT). 
              iii. Sarala Puraskar is recognised as the foremost literary award of Odisha. This award is one of the finest contributions of  Indian Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT) to glorify Odia literature.

              Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
              • Utkal Divas or Odisha Day falls every year on 01st April.
              • Chief Minister of Odisha: Naveen Patnaik; Governor: Ganeshi Lal.

                    Summit and Conference

                    8.  6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue held in New Delhi



                    i. The 6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue was held in New Delhi. The Dialogue comprised of round table meetings of Joint Working Groups on infrastructure, energy, high-tech, resource conservation and policy coordination followed by technical site visits and closed-door G2G meetings.
                    ii. The Indian side was led by Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog and the Chinese side by Mr. He Lifeng, Chairman, National Development and Reforms Commission. The dialogue is held annually alternately at the capital cities of the two countries.
                    iii. The 2 sides arrived at following mutual agreements:
                    • They exchanged views on regulatory procedures of ease of doing business, development of artificial intelligence, high-tech manufacturing, and next-generation mobile communications of both countries.
                    • They also pressed upon the need for promoting cooperation in emergent areas like Waste to Power, co-processing of Septage with Sewage Sludge, stormwater management etc.
                    • They agreed on cooperation in R&D for developing new technology for manufacturing solar cell from alternate material and improvement of efficiency of solar cells.

                    9. 22nd Session of UN Committee on CRPD at Geneva



                    i. The 22nd Session of UN Committee on Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities was held at Geneva. The UN Committee on CRPD took up India’s First Country Report for consideration during the session. India ratified this Convention on 01-10-2007 in pursuance of Article 35 of the Convention.
                    ii. Shakuntala D. Gamlin, Secretary, DEPwD headed the Indian delegation at the session. She highlighted various initiatives taken by the Government in the recent past for inclusion and empowerment of PwDs in line with the obligations under UNCRPD.

                    Obituaries

                    10. Freedom fighter Heeralal Sharma passes away



                    i. Rajasthan born freedom fighter of India Heeralal Sharma has passed away at the age of 95. He took an active participated in the freedom struggle and was jailed for two years.

                    Important Days

                    11. World Suicide Prevention Day: 10 September



                    i. The International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) observes World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) on 10 September every year. WHO has been co-sponsor of the day. 
                    ii. The purpose of this day is to raise awareness around the globe that suicide can be prevented. The number of countries with national suicide prevention strategies has increased in the five years since the publication of WHO’s first global report on suicide.

                      Miscellaneous

                      12. Royal Society honour for Dr Yusuf Hamied



                      i. Dr Yusuf Hamied, chairman of Cipla, a pharmaceutical company has been inducted as an honorary fellow of the Royal Society. He was elected as an honorary fellow of the Royal Society for his service to the cause of science.
                      ii. A total of 51 new Fellows and 10 foreign members were elected to the Royal Society in 2019. Royal Society is the independent scientific academy of the UK and the Commonwealth which is dedicated to promoting excellence in science.

                      13. Hurricane Dorian: India announces USD 1 million disaster relief aid for Bahamas



                      i. India announced humanitarian assistance of USD 1 million to help people in the Bahamas affected by Hurricane Dorian. According to reports, the death toll from the calamity has risen to over 40 and is likely to increase even more, even as search and rescue teams are still trying to reach out to Bahamian communities isolated by floodwaters and debris in the wake of Hurricane Dorian.

                      Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
                      • Capital of Bahamas: Nassau; Currency of Bahamas: Bahamian dollar.

                      14. PM Modi and Nepalese PM to inaugurate Motihari-Amlekhgunj oil pipeline



                      i. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Nepal's Prime Minister K.P.Sharma Oli will jointly inaugurate Motihari-Amlekhgunj cross border petroleum products pipeline. 
                      ii. The 69 km long pipeline from Motihari in Bihar to Amlekhgunj in Nepal has been constructed by India. This is the first transnational petroleum pipeline form India and first South Asian oil pipeline corridor.
                      iii. The pipeline will ensure smooth, cost-effective and environment-friendly supply of petroleum products to Nepal. The pipeline will save billions of rupees every year on transportation, leakage and expected to make a significant contribution to the prosperity of Nepal and its people.

                      Static/Current Takeaways Important For RRB NTPC/IBPS RRB Mains:
                      • Capital of Nepal: Kathmandu; President of Nepal: Bidhya Devi Bhandari; Currency of Nepal: Nepalese rupee.

                      Learn Current Affairs with ADDA247 Youtube Channel. Check out the video below.





                      Practice Current Affairs & Banking Quiz



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                      IBPS PO Reasoning Ability Quiz: 10th September

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                      IBPS PO Reasoning Ability Quiz

                      The reasoning being the scoring part can enhance your performance as a whole. All you need to do is clear your basics and be aware of the syllabus of the particular exam you are preparing for. Study Notes for the topics like Puzzles, Coding-decoding, sitting arrangement, blood relations, and the list is long is provided on Adda247, so that you can make the preparation time fun by cracking the logic that runs the engine of a particular topic. Giving mocks and Quizzes on a regular basis will help you to decode the strategy. Also, the Study Plans go hand in hand with the exam preparations that will take place in the upcoming months. Like the IBPS PO Prelims are scheduled in the month of October and we already rolled the study plan 'Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATAH' for your aid. Under the same plan, here is the Quiz for Reasoning, to make sure that you don't skip any important topic as well as be prepared to face any type of questions in the prelims. IBPS PO Reasoning Quiz of 10th September 2019 covers Inequality.


                      Directions (1-5): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

                      Q1. Statements:  G>H≤A=W≥U>O>D>C
                      Conclusion I: H<WII: A>D
                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.
                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

                      S1. Ans(b)
                      Sol.
                      I: H<W (false)II: A>D(True)

                      Q2. Statements:  J>W=X>I<P=D>L<F≤R
                      Conclusion I:  X=L II: F>P
                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.
                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.


                      S2. Ans(d)

                      Sol.
                      I:  X=L (False)II: F>P(False)

                      Q3. Statements:  W≤E≤U>C<J≤D<L=S≤I
                      Conclusion I: C<SII: U<D
                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.
                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

                      S3. Ans(a)

                      Sol.
                      I: C<S(True)     II: U<D(False)

                      Q4. Statements:   X≤W=S>D=M>K>O≤P≤L
                      Conclusion I: S≤OII: S>O
                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.
                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

                      S4. Ans(b)

                      Sol.
                      I: S≤O (False)II: S>O(True)

                      Q5. Statements:   Q≤H=X>M≤O<P<L=D>H
                      Conclusion I: D>MII: X>L
                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.
                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.



                      S5. Ans(a)

                      Sol.
                      I: D>M(True)II: X>L (False)

                      Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, %, $ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below-
                      ‘P#Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
                      ‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’
                      ‘P$Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’
                      ‘P@Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
                      ‘P*Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
                      Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

                      Q6. Statements: X*M$T%U#V#W
                      Conclusions: I. X*U      II. T#V         III. M*U
                      (a) None is true                     
                      (b) Only I and II is true
                      (c) Only III is true                 
                      (d) Either I or II are true
                      (e) None of these

                      S6. Ans(a)
                      Sol.
                      I. X*U(False)      II. T#V (False)             III. M*U(False)


                      Q7.  Statements:  Q$U*X*B%N@M$O%I
                      Conclusions: I. N@O    II. Q*B      III. B%I 
                      (a) Only I and III are true                 
                      (b) Only II and III are true
                      (c) Only I and II are true
                      (d) All are true
                      (e) None of these

                      S7. Ans(d)
                      Sol.
                      I. N@O(True)      II. Q*B(True)               III. B%I (True)

                      Q8. Statements: H%J$C*N@W$M%X
                      Conclusions: I. C$W      II. N@J           III. X#N
                      (a) None is true                     
                      (b) Only II is true
                      (c) Only I and II are true   
                      (d) Only II and III are true
                      (e) All are true

                      S8. Ans(d)
                      Sol.
                      I. C$W(False)      II. N@J(True)               III. X#N(True)

                      Q9. Statements: X$B*C$N*D%U#G$F
                      Conclusions: I. B*D     II. C*G               III. G%C
                      (a) Only I is true                     
                      (b) Only III is true
                      (c) Only II true   
                      (d) Either II or III and I true
                      (e) All are true

                      S9. Ans(a)
                      Sol.
                      I. B*D(True)    II. C@G(False)               III. G%C(False)

                      Q10. Statements: J$C@M%E*O#P%L*Y
                      Conclusions: I.P%E       II. M%L          III. C$O
                      (a) None is true                     
                      (b) Only II is true
                      (c) Only I and II are true   
                      (d) Only II and III are true
                      (e) None of these



                      S10. Ans(e)

                      Sol.
                      I. P%E (True)     II. M%L (False)III. C$O(False)

                      Q11. Which of the following symbols should replace the sign (%) and (&) respectively in the given expression in order to make the expression  U>D and  J≥G definitely true?
                      A>U≥N%C>G&D≤B=K≤J>I
                      (a) =, ≥                          
                      (b) =, >          
                      (c) ≤, = 
                      (d) =,= 
                      (e) =, < 

                      S11. Ans.(d)

                      Q12. Which of the following will be definitely not true if the given expression T<C>X>L≥I≥O<P≤S<M≥U=W is definitely true?
                      (a) M>O                     
                      (b) C>I       
                      (c) X≥O
                      (d) M>P
                      (e) W≤M

                      S12. Ans.(c)

                      Directions (13-15): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

                      Q13. Statements: H>S>T<V> D, M<T>U
                      Conclusion I: V>MII: H>U

                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.

                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows 

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.


                      S13. Ans(e)
                      Sol.
                      I: V>M(True)II: H>U(True

                      Q14. Statements:  R>E≥V=G≥S, T<V≤W
                      Conclusion I: S=WII: W>S

                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.

                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows 

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.


                      S14. Ans(c)
                      Sol.
                      I: S=W(False)II: W>S(False

                      Q15. Statements:  D>G<Y>Q, P>Y, G>T
                      Conclusion I: Q>TII: T<P

                      (a) If only conclusion I follows.

                      (b) If only conclusion II follows.

                      (c) If either conclusion I or II follows 

                      (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

                      (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.


                      S15. Ans(b)
                      Sol.
                      I: Q>T(False)     II: T<P(True)

                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains English Quiz 10th of September 2019

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                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main English Quiz

                      With every day passed, competition is increasing in leaps and bounds and it is necessary to work smarter to sail through any exam. Having a proper study plan and the updated questions to brush up your knowledge in addition to well-organized study notes for the same can help you with your preparation. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk is going to be the tough exam so you can not afford to leave any important topics. If you deal with the section with accuracy, it can do wonders and can fetch you good marks. As English is the most dreaded subject among students, we are here to provide you with the new questions with the detailed solution so that you can make it this time in IBPS RRB PO/Clerk mains. Here is the English quiz for 10th September 2019. This quiz is based on two topics-Phrase Meaning Sentences and Word Swap.

                      Directions (1-8): In the following questions, a phrase is given in bold whose meaning can be inferred from one of the highlighted words/phrases of four sentences given below each phrase. Choose the most appropriate meaning of the phrase among the four options that can also be replaced by the given phrase without altering the meaning of the sentence. If none of the sentences conveys the correct meaning, choose (E) i.e., “None of the above” as your answer.
                      Q1. Be taken with
                      (a) My computer’s behaving badly; I think I might have a virus.
                      (b) The next bus should arrive in the next quarter of an hour or so.
                      (c) The judge’s character may affect the final decision.
                      (d) I liked the performance- it was superb.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S1. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d). Be taken with means- “highly attracted to someone or something”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the last statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.

                      Q2. Bear out
                      (a) Statistics confirmed that the government’s position on the issue is correct.
                      (b) The mugger attacked him violently and stole his wallet.
                      (c) He falls unconscious and collapsed on the floor.
                      (d) Our car stops functioning at the side of the highway in the snowstorm.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S2. Ans. (a)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (a). Bear Out means- “Confirm that something is correct”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the first statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (a) is the correct choice.

                      Q3. Carried away
                      (a) We were starving so we started eating greedily when the food finally did arrive.
                      (b) Some scientists say that the dinosaurs become extinct when a comet hit the earth and caused a nuclear winter.
                      (c) The team got so emotional that they lost control when they won the championship and started shouting and throwing things around.
                      (d) Most of the elm trees in the UK become extinct when Dutch elm disease arrived.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S3. Ans. (c)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (c). Carried away means- “Get so emotional that you lose control”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the third statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (c) is the correct choice.

                      Q4. Jam on
                      (a) I brought you some flowers to make you happy.
                      (b) One of the wolves separated from his pack.
                      (c) The company's profits have increased by fifteen percent.
                      (d) Jack forcefully applied on the brakes when the rabbit ran in front of his car.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S4. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d). Jam on means- “Apply or operate something forcefully”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the last statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.

                      Q5. Decide upon
                      (a) It was on the front pages of all the papers for a few days, but the interest gradually decreased.
                      (b) Jane spent a long time looking at houses before she bought one, but eventually choose one near her office.
                      (c) The traffic was so bad that it took me ages to move into the traffic.
                      (d) I need to improve my French before I go to Paris.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S5. Ans. (b)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (b). Decide upon means- “Choose, select”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the second statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

                      Q6. Pop off
                      (a) He visited for a short time in a coffee shop on his way to home.
                      (b) The children behaved badly all evening and drove the babysitter mad.
                      (c) At first, no one answered, and then finally someone raised the voice.
                      (d) He’s always talking loudly when things don’t suit him.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S6. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d). Pop off means- “Talk loudly, complain”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the last statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.

                      Q7. Blow away
                      (a) When I lose my temper, it takes ages for me to stop being angry again.
                      (b) They hope the new management will be able to carry the project forward.
                      (c) Her first novel impressed me very much.
                      (d) She praised the teachers in the hope that they would give her a good grade.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S7. Ans. (c)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (c). Blow away means- “Impress greatly”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the third statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (c) is the correct choice.

                      Q8. Hold off
                      (a) The police told the crowd to maintain a safe distance from the fire.
                      (b) Nowadays, you need IT skills if you want to progress.
                      (c) We finished the work for the day to avoid the rush hour queues.
                      (d) The famous football team Manchester United couldn’t stop their opponents from attacking and lost the game.
                      (e) None of these.

                      S8. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d)."Hold off” means- “Stop someone from attacking or beating you”. Among the given four options, only the words mentioned in the last statement defines the correct meaning of it. Other words are not the correct explanation of the phrase. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.

                      Directions (9-15): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.
                      Q9. The Indian banking sector has leapfrogging (A) rapidly increasing stress(B) in the last couple of years with NPAs (non-performing assets) witnessed (C) from 3 percent to 14 percent of total assets(D).
                      (a) A-D
                      (b) B-C
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) A-C
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S9. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d).

                      Q10. The Insurance Regulatory (A) and Development Authority of India has set up a panel to suggest(B) a framework and methodology to link violations (C) with traffic premiums (D).
                      (a) B-C
                      (b) C-D
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) A-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S10. Ans. (b)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (b).

                      Q11. The Constitution responsibilities (A) that panchayats and municipalities shall be elected(B) every five years and enjoins (C)States to devolve functions and mandates(D)to them through law.
                      (a) B-C
                      (b) B-D
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) A-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S11. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (d).

                      Q12.Securitization (A) is a mechanism (B)to convert illiquid (C)loans on the lenders balance sheet into tradeable (D)securities.
                      (a) A-C
                      (b) A-B
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) A-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S12. Ans. (e)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (e). The sentence is absolutely correct.

                      Q13.Governments (A) is a bane arising from electoral (B) politics and both the Union and state Populism (C) are equally guilty (D).
                      (a) A-C
                      (b) B-C
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) C-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S13. Ans. (a)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (a).

                      Q14. Going by the Reserve Bank of India’s index, this has been a dismal(A) year so far on that count, with confidence(B) among consumers having slipped(C) this July since March to mirror worsening(D) sentiment over the state of the Indian economy.
                      (a) A-C
                      (b) A-B
                      (c) Both A-B and A-D
                      (d) A-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S14. Ans. (e)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (e). The sentence is absolutely correct

                      Q15. India has the accidents (A) distinction of being home to the highest (B) number of road dubious(C) and also the most fatalities (D) globally.
                      (a) B-C
                      (b) B-D
                      (c) A-C
                      (d) A-D
                      (e) No replacement required

                      S15. Ans. (c)
                      Sol. The correct option choice is option (c).


                      You may also like to read:


                      All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main!!

                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz: 10th September 2019

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                      Dear Aspirants,

                      banking-awareness-quiz-for-ibps-rrb-main

                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz

                      With the increased competition in the field of banking examinations, it has now become very important to cover up all the sections efficiently. One subject that can help you bagging graceful marks in the minimum time in these examinations is Banking Awareness. Banking Awareness Quiz not only helps you deal with the General Awareness Section of Banking Exams but also, the Personal Interview round of Banking Recruitment.



                      Q1. In India, Mutual Funds are regulated by-?
                      (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India 
                      (b) Reserve Bank of India
                      (c) State Bank of India
                      (d) Small Industrial Development Bank of India
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S1. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. Mutual funds in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

                      Q2. KYC Compliance is done to-
                      (a) Identify a person
                      (b) To know the address of a person
                      (c) To ensure the genuineness the person’s identity as mentioned in the application and to verify the correctness of address 
                      (d) Concern state government
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S2. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. The objective of KYC guidelines is to prevent banks from being used, intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for money laundering activities. Related procedures also enable banks to better understand their customers and their financial dealings.

                      Q3. What is the full form of MICR?
                      (a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition 
                      (b) Maximum Individual Cancer Risk
                      (c) Michigan Incident Crime Reporting
                      (d) Magnetic Ink Check Reader
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S3. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. Magnetic ink character recognition (MICR) is the information that appears at the bottom of a check. This includes the bank's routing number, the customer's account number, and the check number.

                      Q4. Open Money Market is a place for selling and buying of a financial instrument by _______.
                      (a) All financial institutions 
                      (b) Only by Commercial Banks
                      (c) Only by Common Banks
                      (d) Indian Government
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S4. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. Money market basically refers to a section of the financial market where financial instruments with high liquidity and short-term maturities are traded. Money market has become a component of the financial market for buying and selling of securities of short-term maturities, of one year or less, such as treasury bills and commercial papers. Over-the-counter trading is done in the money market and it is a wholesale process. It is used by the participants as a way of borrowing and lending for the short term.

                      Q5. Which of the following is the first commercial bank to launch mutual fund?
                      (a) State Bank of India 
                      (b) Canara Bank
                      (c) Punjab National Bank
                      (d) Bank of India
                      (e) Bank of Baroda

                      S5. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. State Bank of India was the first to launch mutual fund. 

                      Q6. Who can invest in a commercial paper?
                      (a) Individuals
                      (b) Banking Companies
                      (c) Corporate bodies registered or incorporated in India and unincorporated bodies, Non- Resident Indians (NRIs) and Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)
                      (d) All of the above 
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S6. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. All residents, and non-residents permitted to invest in CPs under Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 are eligible to invest in CPs; however, no person can invest in CPs issued by related parties either in the primary or secondary market. Investment by regulated financial sector entities will be subject to such conditions as the concerned regulator may impose.

                      Q7. The committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices which released the agreed frame work on international convergence of capital measures and capital standards in July 1988 is popularly known as _______.
                      (a) Vaz Committee
                      (b) Cooks Committee
                      (c) Basel Committee 
                      (d) Rao Committee
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S7. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. The document has been incorporated in the comprehensive version of International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A Revised Framework, including the elements of the 1988 Accord that were not revised during the Basel II process, the 1996 Amendment to the Capital Accord to Incorporate Market Risks, and the 2005 paper on The Application of Basel II to Trading Activities and the Treatment of Double Default Effects.

                      Q8. In present, Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which RBI Pays interest to Commercial Banks and it is linked to Repo Rate and the rate is-?
                      (a) 1% above Repo Rate
                      (b) 0.25% below Repo Rate 
                      (c) Same as Repo Rate
                      (d) 1% below Repo Rate
                      (e) 0.25% above Repo Rate

                      S8. Ans.(b)
                      Sol. Policy Repo Rate: 5.40% and Reverse Repo Rate: 5.15%.

                      Q9. Which is the first Indian Private Sector Bank set up a branch in China?
                      (a) ICICI Bank
                      (b) Syndicate Bank
                      (c) Axis Bank 
                      (d) HDFC Bank
                      (e) State Bank of India

                      S9. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Axis Bank, the First Indian Private Sector Bank to Set up a Branch in China.

                      Q10. Which of the following rates is not decided by the RBI?
                      (a) Bank Rate
                      (b) Repo Rate
                      (c) Reverse Repo Rate
                      (d) Prime Lending Rate 
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S10. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. Historically, prime lending rate is the interest rate at which banks lend to its most credit worthy customers. But, over the course of history, banks have come to lend to customers at interest rates below and above the prime lending rate. Prime lending rate of banks do not vary widely. 

                      Q11. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
                      (a) Fiscal Policy Functions 
                      (b) Exchange Control Functions
                      (c) Issuance, Exchange and destruction of currency notes
                      (d) Monetary Authority Functions
                      (e) Supervisory and Control Functions

                      S11. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. Fiscal policy is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It is the sister strategy to monetary policy through which a central bank influences a nation's money supply.

                      Q12. With a view to facilitate payment of the balance in the deposit account to the person named by the depositor without any hassles in the event of the death of the account holder, the following facility was introduced for bank accounts in our country-
                      (a) Will
                      (b) Registration
                      (c) Nomination 
                      (d) Indemnity
                      (e) Guarantee

                      S12. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Banks ask their account holders to make nominations which mean that they should nominate persons to whom the money lying in their accounts should go in the event of their death. Nomination can be made in account opening form itself or on a separate form indicating the name and address of the nominee.

                      Q13. Banks in our country normally publicize that additional interest rate is allowed on retail domestic term deposits of________.
                      (a) Minors
                      (b) Married women
                      (c) Senior citizens 
                      (d) Govt. employees
                      (e) Rural residents

                      S13. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Banks in our country normally publicize that additional interest rate is allowed on retail domestic term deposits of senior citizens. 

                      Q14. On which one of the following issues IMF has supported the monetary policy of India?
                      (a) Introduction of GST.
                      (b) The stimulus for the agriculture sector
                      (c) Concessions for foreign investment
                      (d) Tightening of monetary policy 
                      (e) None of the given options is true

                      S14. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has stated the tightening of monetary policy by India is an 'appropriate' step, as the country is faced with high inflation and needs to consolidate the fiscal measures initiated during the slowdown. 

                      Q15. In the term STRIPS, the first "S‟ denotes-?
                      (a) Single
                      (b) Small
                      (c) Special
                      (d) Savings
                      (e) Separate 

                      S15. Ans.(e)
                      Sol. STRIPS (Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities) are debt securities that are created through the process of coupon stripping. They are essentially traditional Treasury bonds, except that the bond's principal (its corpus) has been separated--stripped--from its interest (its coupon).

                      Check the Banking Awareness Video for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk: 



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                      IBPS PO Prelims Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 10th September 2019

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                      IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude Quiz
                      With the increasing level in exams, quantitative aptitude has become the ineluctable hitch. Generally, questions asked in this section are calculative and lengthy that consumes your time. This subject can do wonders if you always keep a check on your accuracy, speed and time. Accuracy is what matters the most. To help you prepare the section we have provided a well-defined IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan. You can also Prepare from the study note to clear your basic concepts. Attempt this quantitative aptitude quiz and check your performance for the upcoming IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan 2019. Following is the quiz of 10th September, that inculcate the important topic from Quantitative Aptitude.






                      Q1.  Train A can cross a man in 8 sec and a 180 m long platform ‘P’ in 17 sec. If train A cross train B which is running in opposite direction at speed of 108 km/hr in 8 sec, then find time taken by train B to cross platform P?
                      (a) 16 sec
                      (b) 11 sec
                      (c) 14 sec
                      (d) 12 sec
                      (e) 15 sec
                      Q2. A passenger train leaves Calcutta at 4 PM and travels at the rate of 30 kilometres an hour. The mail train leaves Calcutta at 9 PM and travels, on a parallel line of rails, at the rate of 45 km an hour, when will the second train overtake the first?
                      (a) 10 hrs after the first train start
                      (b) 12 hrs after the second train starts
                      (c) 10 hrs after the second train starts
                      (d) 12 hrs after the first train starts
                      (e) 8 hrs after the first train starts
                      Q3. The distance between two stations A and B is 450 km. A train starts from A and moves towards B at an average speed of 15 km/h. Another train starts from B, 20 min earlier than the train at A and moves towards A at an average speed of 20 km/h. How far from A will the two trains meet? 
                      (a) 190 km
                      (b) 320 km
                      (c) 180 km
                      (d) 260 km
                      (e) 210 km 
                      Q4. A train after 3 hours from starting meet with an accident. After this the train proceeds at 75% of its former speed and arrives 4 hours late. Had the accident happened 150 km farther along the line, it would have arrived only 3 1/2 hours late. Find speed of the train and total distance of journey?
                      (a) 100 km/hr, 1500 km
                      (b) 200 km/hr, 1200 km
                      (c) 100 km/hr, 1200 km
                      (d) 150 km/hr, 1200 km
                      (e) None
                      Q5. Train A, travelling at 84 kmph, overtook train B, traveling in the same direction, in 10 seconds. If train B had been traveling at twice its speed, then train A would have taken 22.5 seconds to overtake it. Find the length of train B, given that it is half the length of train A. 
                      (a) 50 m
                      (b) 100 m
                      (c) 200 m
                      (d) 150 m
                      (e) 180 m 
                      Q6. Two trains have respective lengths as 230 m and 190 m. They cross each other completely in 21 s, if they are travelling in the opposite direction and in 42 s, if they are traveling in the same direction. Find the ratio of the speed of the two trains. 
                      (a) 3 : 1
                      (b) 4 : 1
                      (c) 3 : 2
                      (d) Can’t be determined 
                      (e) None of these
                      Directions (7-10): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value). 
                      Q8. 41% of 601 – 250.17 = ? – 77% of 910
                      (a) 800
                      (b) 500
                      (c) 690
                      (d) 650
                      (e) 550
                      Q9. 52001÷60×29= ? ×41
                      (a) 700
                      (b) 650
                      (c) 500
                      (d) 550
                      (e) 680
                      Directions (11-15): In each of these questions a number series is given only one number is wrong in each series. You have to identify the wrong number. 
                      Q11. 911257932116459673
                      (a) 25
                      (b) 321
                      (c) 9673
                      (d) 1645
                      (e) 79
                      Q12.  -24,  -18,  -11,  -2,  10,  26,  52 
                      (a) –2
                      (b) –11
                      (c) –18
                      (d) 26
                      (e) 52

                      Q13.   12 25525557115117
                      (a) 55
                      (b) 117
                      (c) 25
                      (d) 52
                      (e) 115
                      Q14.    2   361545160630
                      (a) 45
                      (b) 630
                      (c) 6
                      (d) 3
                      (e) 160
                      Q15.   7 18 40 106 183 282 403
                      (a) 18
                      (b) 282
                      (c) 40
                      (d) 106
                      (e) 183

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                      All the Best BA'ians for IBPS RRB Prelims Result!!

                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Static Awareness Quiz: 10th September 2019

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                      Dear Aspirants,

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                      IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main Static GK Questions

                      In every Bank/Insurance/SSC and Other competitive exams, there will be some questions of Static GK based. So, here we have given the most important static gk questions for IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main Exam. You can also check the quiz of IBPS RRB PO/ Clerk Main. These questions are also important for IBPS PO and other upcoming exams.


                      Q1. Public sector Bank, Indian Bank signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Tata AIG General Insurance. Who is the present CEO of Indian Bank?
                      (a) Ashok Kumar Pradhan
                      (b) Sunil Mehta
                      (c) Karnam Sekar
                      (d) Padmaja Chunduru
                      (e) Dinbandhu Mohapatra

                      S1. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The present CEO of Indian Bank is Padmaja Chunduru.

                      Q2. The Department of Social Justice signed an MoU with the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO). Where is the headquarter of NACO?
                      (a) Dehradun
                      (b) Bengaluru
                      (c) Mumbai
                      (d) Kolkata
                      (e) New Delhi

                      S2. Ans. (e)
                      Sol. The headquarter of the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) in  New Delhi.

                      Q3. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has partnered with Incuspaze Solutions Private Limited (Incuspaze) to open a first-of-its-kind co-working space. This coworking space exclusively designed for MSMEs and startups. Who is the present chairman of SIDBI?
                      (a) Mukesh Kumar Jain
                      (b) Mohammad Mustafa
                      (c) Sunil Mehta
                      (d) Atul Kumar Goel
                      (e) Ashok Kumar Pradhan

                      S3. Ans. (b)
                      Sol. The Centre has appointed Mohammad Mustafa, a 1995 batch IAS officer, as Chairman and Managing Director of Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).

                      Q4. Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award 2018 announced. The award is given in 4 categories: Land Adventure, Water Adventure, Air Adventure and Life Time Achievement. What is the height of Mount Everest?
                      (a) 8,844 metres
                      (b) 8,842 metres
                      (c) 8,846 metres
                      (d) 8,848 metres
                      (e) 8,840 metres

                      S4. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The height of Mount Everest is 8,848 m (29,029 ft) was first determined by an Indian survey in 1955.

                      Q5. The 4th edition of India’s largest confluence of digital technology, the Internet of Things (IoT) India Congress 2019 held in Bengaluru, Karnataka. Who is the present Chief Minister of Karnataka?
                      (a) Edappadi K Palaniswami
                      (b) Pinarayi Vijayan
                      (c) Y S Jaganmohan Reddy
                      (d) B S Yediyurappa
                      (e) K Chandrashekhar Rao

                      S5. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. Bookanakere Siddalingappa Yediyurappa is an Indian politician and Chief Minister of Karnataka.

                      Q6. The 2019 Indo Pacific Chiefs of Defence (CHOD) Conference will be held in Bangkok, Thailand’s. What is the currency of Thailand?
                      (a) Birr
                      (b) Nakfa
                      (c) Pula
                      (d) Ngultrum
                      (e) Baht

                      S6. Ans. (e)
                      Sol. Thai Baht is the official currency of Thailand.

                      Q7. The 7th 'Community Radio Sammelan' will be held in New Delhi. Who is the present Union Ministry of Information & Broadcasting? 
                      (a) Pralhad Joshi
                      (b) Dharmendra Pradhan
                      (c) Harsh Vardhan
                      (d) Prakash Javadekar
                      (e) Piyush Goyal

                      S7. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. The present Union Ministry of Information & Broadcasting is Prakash Javadekar.

                      Q8. Intel Corp launched its latest processor, it's first using artificial intelligence (AI), designed for large computing centres. In which year Intel was established?
                      (a) 1962
                      (b) 1964
                      (c) 1966
                      (d) 1968
                      (e) 1970

                      S8. Ans. (d)
                      Sol. Intel was founded on July 18, 1968, by semiconductor pioneers Robert Noyce and Gordon Moore.

                      Q9. The Delhi and District Cricket Association (DDCA) decided to rename Feroz Shah Kotla Stadium as Arun Jaitley Stadium in the memory of its former president of DDCA. Who is the present president of DDCA?
                      (a) Mayank Tehlan
                      (b) Vineet Jain
                      (c) Anil Bharadwaj
                      (d) Atul Wassan
                      (e) Rajat Sharma

                      S9. Ans. (e)
                      Sol. The present president of Delhi and District Cricket Association (DDCA) is Rajat Sharma.

                      Q10. Amazon India launches Military Veterans Employment programme. In which year Amazon company established?
                      (a) 1994
                      (b) 1995
                      (c) 1996
                      (d) 1997
                      (e) 1998

                      S10. Ans. (a)
                      Sol. Amazon was founded by Jeff Bezos on July 5, 1994, in Bellevue, Washington.

                      Q11. Union Minister for Chemicals and Fertilizers launched a mobile application “Janaushadhi Sugam”. Who is the present Union Minister for Chemicals and Fertilizers?
                      (a) Giriraj Singh
                      (b) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
                      (c) Pralhad Joshi
                      (d) DV Sadananda Gowda
                      (e) Mahendra Nath Pandey

                      S11. Ans. (d) 
                      Sol. The present Union Minister for Chemicals and Fertilizers is DV Sadananda Gowda.

                      Q12. Tamil Nadu government launched its exclusive 24x7 education channel for school students. This TV channel, aimed at benefiting students of classes I to XII. Which of the following National park is situated in Tamil Nadu?
                      (a) Silent Valley National Park
                      (b) Mukurthi National Park
                      (c) Murlen National Park
                      (d) Nameri National Park
                      (e) Neora Valley National Park

                      S12. Ans. (b)
                      Sol. Mukurthi National Park is a 78.46 km2 protected area located in the western corner of the Nilgiris Plateau west of Ootacamund hill station in the northwest corner of Tamil Nadu.

                      Q13. Canara Bank has launched India’s first OTP facility for ATM withdrawals. This additional factor of authentication protects from unauthorized ATM cash withdrawals for cardholders. Who is the present chairman of Canara Bank?
                      (a) AS Rajeev
                      (b) Ravi Venkatesan
                      (c) TN Manoharan
                      (d) J Packiriswamy
                      (e) Karnam Sekhar

                      S13. Ans. (c)
                      Sol. T. N. Manoharan is Chairman of Canara Bank, one of the largest public sector bank in India.

                      Q14. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) Chairman and Managing Director (CMD), Shashi Shanker was honoured with the Distinguished Fellowship of the Institute of Directors (IOD) 2019. Where is the headquarters of ONGC?
                      (a) New Delhi
                      (b) Mumbai
                      (c) Bengaluru
                      (d) Hyderabad
                      (e) Pune

                      S14. Ans. (a)
                      Sol. The headquarters of ONGC in New Delhi.

                      Q15. The Indian School of Business (ISB) and Microsoft India announced a new partnership to take forward their shared vision for an AI-empowered India. Who is the present CEO of Microsoft?
                      (a) Colin Doherty
                      (b) Steve Ballmer
                      (c) Satya Nadella
                      (d) Daniel Schulman
                      (e) Susan Wojcicki

                      S15. Ans. (c)
                      Sol. Satya Nadella is an engineer and Indian American business executive. He currently serves as the Chief Executive Officer of Microsoft.



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                      BA Study Kit: 10th September 2019

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                      BA Study Kit: 10th September 2019

                      Missed any important update, quiz or article of the day? Do not worry. Here is the BA study kit of the day that is inculcated with all the events and news that happened all day long on Bankersadda. Every single post on Bankersadda is important for the banking aspirants do not miss out any update. To help you revise all that you have learned today, we are providing you with the complete bag of the study material and notes. Check the important quiz and articles that took the place on Bankersadda today. Check the BA study kit for 10th September 2019.


                      1. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Current Affairs Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      2. Daily Vocabulary: 10th September 2019

                      3. Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATEH

                      4. Nainital Bank Result 2019: Probationary Officer, Clerk & Specialist Officer

                      5. IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Maha Mock-1 : Leaderboard

                      6. IBPS PO Prelims English Quiz: 10th of September 2019

                      7. IBPS RRB PO Mains | How To Prepare In 15 Days

                      8. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Reasoning Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      9. Join Our Team!! Mega Recruitment Drive on 14th September

                      10. Karur Vysya Bank Recruitment 2019: Official Notification & Apply Online

                      11. How To Prepare For IBPS PO At Home Without Coaching

                      12. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      13. Ramanathapuram District Cooperative Bank Recruitment 2019: Check Here

                      14. Upcoming Government Exams 2019: Discussion on Important Topics | Live Now!

                      15. IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Maha Mock- Free PDF

                      16. IBPS RRB Mains Computer Quiz: 10th September

                      17. How to Prepare General Awareness for RRB Mains 2019

                      18. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Static Awareness Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      19. IBPS PO Prelims Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      20. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Banking Awareness Quiz: 10th September 2019

                      21.  IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains English Quiz 10th of September 2019

                      22. IBPS PO Reasoning Ability Quiz: 10th September

                      23. Daily Current Affairs 10th September 2019 | Daily GK Update



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                           Never give up, for that is just the place and time that the tide will turn.

                      All the Best BA'ians for the Upcoming Exams !!

                      Bank Premium Plus | Get unlimited Mock Tests, Study Notes, e-books & Capsules

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                      Adda247 for the first time ever is here with an exclusive subscription Bank Premium Plus that can change the way you practice!! It's a boon for all banking aspirants and on their popular demand, our team is launching Bank Premium Plus Test Series and ebooks Subscription. How can it help? What is this Premium Plus? What all exams are covered and how this works? To get answers to all these questions, keep on reading because you would not want to miss this opportunity to grab the best deal to add a boost to your preparation!!


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                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains Current Affairs Quiz: 11th September 2019

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                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Current Affairs Questions: 11th September

                      IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main Current Affairs

                      The Current Affairs section comes under the General Awareness which is as important as the formulas are for mathematics calculations, so this section is one that needs your undivided attention.  You cannot pile up all the news and read them in a go, you need to be up to the mark when it comes to daily affairs of the world. So here in Adda247, we prepare quizzes on daily news that holds importance considering the banking examinations, like IBPS RRB mains, IBPS PO/Clerk and many more. IBPS RRB PO Main 2019 is just one step away & you need to ace the mains examination for this you will have to compete with thousands. So to help you out in the finals, here is the 11th September 2019 Quiz on the current affairs of the previous day. 


                      Q1. On which day the International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) observes World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) every year?
                      (a) 07 September
                      (b) 08 September
                      (c) 09 September
                      (d) 10 September
                      (e) 11 September

                      S1. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. The International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) observes World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) on 10 September every year.

                      Q2. Which of the following places hosted the 22nd Session of UN Committee on Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities? 
                      (a) Geneva
                      (b) Paris
                      (c) London
                      (d) Jakarta
                      (e) The Hague

                      S2. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. The 22nd Session of UN Committee on Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities was held at Geneva.

                      Q3. Who among the following has been appointed as the chief justice of the Gujarat High Court?
                      (a) Justice Navaniti Prasad Singh
                      (b) Justice Shiavax Jal Vazifdar
                      (c) Justice Vikram Nath
                      (d) Justice Vineet Saran
                      (e) Justice Naresh Harishchandra Patil

                      S3. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Justice Vikram Nath has been appointed as the chief justice of the Gujarat High Court.

                      Q4. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has recently rolled out AePS services. AePS stands for?
                      (a) Aadhaar Enabled Procurement System 
                      (b) Aadhaar Enabled Payment System
                      (c) Account Enabled Payment System
                      (d) Account Enabled Processing System
                      (e) Aadhaar Enabled Processing System

                      S4. Ans.(b)
                      Sol. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has recently rolled out Aadhaar Enabled Payment System Services (AePS).

                      Q5. India’s first-ever helicopter summit was recently organised by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and was held in _____________________________ 
                      (a) Ranchi
                      (b) Idaipur
                      (c) Ahmedabad
                      (d) Dehradun
                      (e) Chennai

                      S5. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. The Ministry of Civil Aviation organised India’s first-ever helicopter summit in Dehradun. 

                      Q6. Who among the following has been appointed by the Microsoft as the new managing director of Microsoft India Research and Development Pvt Ltd (MIRPL)?
                      (a) Anil Bhansali
                      (b) Rajan Anandan
                      (c) Amit Agarwal
                      (d) Kalyan Krishnamurthy
                      (e) Rajiv Kumar

                      S6. Ans.(e)
                      Sol. Microsoft has appointed Rajiv Kumar as the new managing director of Microsoft India Research and Development Pvt Ltd (MIRPL).

                      Q7. Pradeep Dash will be conferred with the 40th edition of prestigious Sarala Puraskar for his poetry work Charu Chibar O Charjya. He belongs to which state?
                      (a) Jharkhand
                      (b) Odisha
                      (c) Bihar
                      (d) Karnataka
                      (e) Assam

                      S7. Ans.(b)
                      Sol. Noted Odia writer Pradeep Dash will be conferred with the 40th edition of prestigious Sarala Puraskar for his poetry work Charu Chibar O Charjya. He is from Odisha.

                      Q8. The 6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue was recently held in _____________________________ 
                      (a) New Delhi
                      (b) Beijing
                      (c) Mumbai
                      (d) Shanghai
                      (e) Guangzhou

                      S8. Ans.(a)
                      Sol. The 6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue was held in New Delhi. 

                      Q9. Name the chairman of Cipla who has been recently inducted as honorary fellow of the Royal Society for his service to the cause of science.
                      (a) Dilip Shanghvi
                      (b) Vinita D. Gupta
                      (c) Erez Israeli
                      (d) Yusuf Hamied
                      (e) Pankaj Patel

                      S9. Ans.(d)
                      Sol. Dr Yusuf Hamied, chairman of Cipla, a pharmaceutical company has been inducted as honorary fellow of the Royal Society for his service to the cause of science.

                      Q10. What amount of humanitarian assistance has been announced by India to help people in the Bahamas affected by Hurricane Dorian?
                      (a) USD 3 million
                      (b) USD 2.5 million
                      (c) USD 2 million
                      (d) USD 1.5 million
                      (e) USD 1 million

                      S10. Ans.(e)
                      Sol. India announced humanitarian assistance of USD 1 million to help people in the Bahamas affected by Hurricane Dorian.

                      Q11. Which of the following organization has signed a port service agreement with Kakinada Seaports Limited to develop a liquified natural gas regasification and reloading terminal at Kakinada port?
                      (a) Indian Oil Corporation
                      (b) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
                      (c) H-Energy
                      (d) Gail India Limited
                      (e) Bharat Petroleum

                      S11. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Hiranandani Group energy arm H-Energy has signed a port service agreement with Kakinada Seaports Limited to develop a liquified natural gas regasification and reloading terminal at Kakinada port.

                      Q12. The Indian side was led by Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog in the 6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue. Who among the following is the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog?
                      (a) Piyush Goyal
                      (b) Rajiv Kumar
                      (c) Vinod Paul
                      (d) V. K. Saraswat
                      (e) Amitabh Kant

                      S12. Ans.(b)
                      Sol. The Indian side was led by Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog in the 6th India-China Strategic Economic Dialogue.

                      Q13. Which of the following companies has been selected by the Reserve Bank of India to develop the mobile application which will help the visually impaired people to identify currency notes?
                      (a) Aricent Technologies
                      (b) Rapidsoft Technologies Pvt. Ltd.
                      (c) XeliumTech Solutions - Mobile App Development Company
                      (d) Quy Technology - Mobile App Development Company
                      (e) Daffodil Software Pvt Ltd

                      S13. Ans.(e)
                      Sol. Daffodil Software Pvt Ltd has been selected by the Reserve Bank of India to develop the mobile application which will help the visually impaired people to identify currency notes.

                      Q14. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Nepal’s Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli will jointly inaugurate _________________-Amlekhgunj cross border petroleum products pipeline. 
                      (a) Araria
                      (b) Buxar
                      (c) Motihari
                      (d) Begusarai
                      (e) Aurangabad

                      S14. Ans.(c)
                      Sol. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Nepal’s Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli will jointly inaugurate Motihari-Amlekhgunj cross border petroleum products pipeline.

                      Q15. Who among the following is the Managing Director & CEO of India Post Payments Bank?
                      (a) Sunil Mehta
                      (b) Aaditya Puri
                      (c) Rajnish Kumar
                      (d) Shikha Sharma
                      (e) Suresh Sethi

                      S15. Ans.(e)
                      Sol. Managing Director & CEO of IPPB: Suresh Sethi.


                      Study Daily Current Affairs on Adda247 YouTube Channel, check the video below


                      You may also like to Read:

                      Daily Vocabulary: 11th September 2019

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                      To strengthen the crust and core of your English language what you need is new and effective words added to your dictionary every day. This is a tedious task if you sit with the dictionary every day. Adda247 brings to you a compact way of learning constantly and efficiently. This is today's Vocabulary for the aspirants who are preparing for the various banking examinations. SBI Clerk, LIC ADOIBPS RRB, IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk are some of the upcoming examinations which can be prepared with the aid of daily Vocabulary. Vocab will help you excel not just in the examinations but will help you sail through the Interview round of the examinations you are preparing for. The words you choose will accelerate you in the correct path towards success and we hope that this article serves the purpose. Here is the vocabulary for 11th September 2019.

                      daily-vocabulary-for-bank-exams

                      SCURRY (verb) 
                      Meaning: (of a person or small animal) move hurriedly with short quick steps.
                      Synonyms: scamper, scuttle, dash, rush.
                      Antonyms: amble, stroll, crawl, saunter.
                      Usage: We have come to see the tornado in all of its glory, not the ant-like humans that scurry about in its path.

                       INGRESS (Noun) 
                      Meaning: the action or fact of going in or entering; the capacity or right of the entrance.
                      Synonyms: entrance, access, admittance, approach
                      Antonyms: egress, exit
                      Usage: If you sit in front of the doorway, you are creating a safety hazard by blocking the path of ingress into the hospital.

                      INVASIVE (adjective) 
                      Meaning: tending to spread very quickly and undesirably or harmfully.
                      Synonyms: nosy, interfering
                      Usage: The samples tested in this series may not include a high proportion of health care staff involved in invasive procedures.

                      PROCLIVITY (Noun)
                      Meaning: a tendency to choose or do something regularly; an inclination or predisposition towards a particular thing.
                      Synonyms: liking, inclination, tendency, leaning
                      Antonyms: disinclination, dislike, antipathy, hate
                      Usage: His proclivity for cooking made him a big hit in the homeowner’s association.

                       HIATUS (Noun)
                      Meaning: a pause or break in continuity in a sequence or activity.
                      Synonyms: pause, break, interval, interruption, suspension
                      Antonyms: closure, juncture, misfortune
                      Usage: The professor will take his family on a long vacation during his hiatus.

                      HEAVE (Verb)
                      Meaning: lift or haul (something heavy) with great effort.
                      Synonyms: haul, pull, lug, drag
                      Antonyms: push
                      Usage: After he tried to heave the heavyweight above his head for the third time, the weak lifter decided to give up.

                      Intimidate(verb)
                      Meaning: frighten or overawe (someone), especially in order to make them do what one wants.
                      Synonyms: dishearten, dismay, terrify
                      Antonyms: please, praise
                      Usage: Her boss intimidates her

                      MELLOW (adjective)
                      Meaning: (especially of a sound, flavor, or color) pleasantly smooth or soft; free from harshness.
                      Synonyms: dulcet, euphonious, melodious, mellifluous, mellifluent.
                      Antonyms: rugged, abrading, gruff, abrasive, harsh.
                      Usage: His mellow voice and his qualitative speech made everyone applaud him

                      Jeer (noun)
                      Meaning: a rude and mocking remark.
                      Synonyms: hoot, ridicule, scuff, taunt
                      Antonyms: compliment, praise, flatter
                      Usage: Virat Kohli asked the crowd not to jeer Steve Smith

                      Preparing for banking exams? Having difficulty in the English section? Check out the video and master the section.



                      Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATEH

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                      IBPS PO Prelims 2019 is scheduled in October 2019 for dates click on below links. This time get ready for the huge opportunity to become a Probationary Officer in the reputed public sector banks as IBPS released 4300+ vacancies of PO for 2019. The job of IBPS PO provides good career prospects with excellent personal as well as professional growth. Candidates can go through IBPS PO Salary, Job Profile & Growth. Aspirants face difficulty to prepare step wise step, there are lot of time waste in searching for the robust study plan. For preparing any exam, you need a plan of action so that you can follow it for the assured results. Adda247 has kept the study plan on top of our list so, here is the "Kar IBPS PO 2019 FATEH Study Plan" which covers the entire IBPS PO Syllabus. You should also keep the focus on Daily vocabulary and the other study material of the Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and the English Language for IBPS PO. 



                      IBPS PO Exam Marking 2019

                      The exam will consist of three subjects namely Reasoning ability, Quantitative aptitude, and English language. There will be sectional timing of 20 minutes each in the IBPS PO Preliminary examination 2019. following is the exam pattern of the IBPS PO prelims 2019.

                      Phase-IIBPS PO Preliminary Examination 2019

                      S.No.Name of Tests(ObjectiveNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksDuration
                      1English Language303020 minutes
                      2Quantitative Aptitude353520 minutes
                      3Reasoning Ability353520 minutes
                      Total10010060 minutes

                      Candidates had to qualify in each of the three tests by securing minimum cut-off marks which were decided by IBPS.

                      Phase – II: IBPS PO Main Examination 2019


                      Main Examination consists of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 25 marks. Both the Objective and Descriptive Tests were conducted online. 

                      S.No.Name of Tests(Objective)No. of QuestionsMaximum MarksDuration
                      1Reasoning & Computer Aptitude456060 minutes
                      2English Language354040 minutes
                      3Data Analysis & Interpretation356045 minutes
                      4General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness404035 minutes
                      Total1552003 Hours
                      The Study Plan has been launched on the 10th of August, stay tuned to this page for the updates

                      IBPS PO Prelims Syllabus 2019:


                      It is important to get the insight into the IBPS PO 2019 Syllabus of the exam you are appearing for. Having deep knowledge about the syllabus could be the savior for you. The IBPS PO Prelims 2019 will consists of three sections i.e. English Language, Reasoning Ability & Quantitative Aptitude. The main examination of IBPS PO 2019 will consists of 4 objective sections i.e. Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, English Language, Data Analysis & Interpretation and General/Economy/Banking Awareness. You can also check out latest books for IBPS PO 2019 exam.


                       Kar-IBPS-PO-2019-FATEH


                      IBPS PO Selection Procedure 2019

                      It is a three-tier process. It consists of three exams like:
                      • Preliminary exam
                      • Main exam (Objective + Descriptive)
                      • Interview process
                      Aspirants have to clear all the three-level to secure a seat in the final merit list. The preliminary exam will be of qualifying in nature. Marks of main (objective+descriptive) and the interview will be considered for final selection.


                      IBPS PO Prelims 2019:  Study plan 

                      This study plan, we will focus on these three subjects.
                      • English Language
                      • Quantitative Aptitude
                      • Reasoning Ability

                      Study Plan for the month of September


                      DateReasoning & Computer AptitudeEnglish LanguageData Analysis & Interpretation
                      1st SeptemberPractice SetStarterMiscellaneous
                      2nd SeptemberInput-OutputEnglish Mix QuizLine Graph DI, Miscellaneous, Number Series
                      3rd SeptemberBlood RelationWord SwapAverage, Ages, Percentage
                      4th SeptemberCoding-DecodingDouble fillersRatio and Proportion, Number System, Simplification
                      5th SeptemberDirectionColumn ErrorPartnership, Bar Graph DI
                      6th SeptemberPuzzlesError DetectionProfit and Loss, Quadratic Equations
                      7th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      8th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      9th SeptemberSyllogismSentence RearrangementTime and Work, Line Graph DI
                      10th SeptemberInequalityWord UsageProblem on Trains, Approximation, Wrong Number Series
                      11th SeptemberPuzzlesPara-JumbleMensuration 2D, Caselet DI
                      12th SeptemberBlood RelationStartersProbability, Permutation and Combination
                      13th SeptemberDirectionReading ComprehensionSimple Interest and Compound Interest, Mixture and Allegation
                      14th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      15th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      16th SeptemberInput-OutputPhrase Fillers-MeaningPipes and Cistern, Data Sufficiency
                      17th SeptemberData Sufficiency & MiscellaneousPhrase ReplacementBoat and Stream, Quantity Comparison
                      18th SeptemberCoding-DecodingIdiom FillersTable DI, Time Speed and Distance
                      19th SeptemberPuzzlesConnectorsSimplification, Quadratic Equations, Pie Graph DI
                      20th SeptemberDirectionCombination FillersMensuration 3D, Profit and Loss
                      21st SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      22nd SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      23rd SeptemberBlood RelationSentence CompletionPercentage, Pipes and Cistern, Wrong Number Series
                      24th SeptemberSyllogismCloze TestProfit and Loss, Missing DI
                      25th SeptemberPuzzlesColumn SentencesPartnership, SI and CI
                      26th SeptemberInequalityWord SwapTime and Work, Quantity Comparison
                      27th SeptemberMiscellaneousSentence RearrangementMensuration 2D, Probability, Caselet DI
                      28th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      29th SeptemberPractice SetPractice SetPractice Set
                      30th SeptemberPuzzlesPara-JumbleMiscellaneous, DI, Missing Series


                      Check study plan for IBPS PO Prelims for the month of August

                      Study Notes for IBPS PO 2019 


                      Looking for tips, tricks and short notes on various topics of Quantitative Aptitude, English and Reasoning Ability? Then here you can also check out short notes on different topics of these three subjects. These notes are prepared keeping in mind the best and time-saving techniques to approach and solve a question.


                      Quantitative AptitudeReasoning AbilityEnglish Language
                      Number SeriesDirection SenseError Detection
                      Percentage and Profit & LossBlood RelationSeating Arrangement
                      AverageSeating Arrangement Para Jumbles
                      Partnership, Ratio and ProportionPuzzles

                      Prepare for IBPS PO 2019 with ADDA247 Youtube Channel









                      Current Affairs Questions Bank: 300+ Questions

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                      Dear Aspirants,

                      Current Affairs Questions Bank

                      Daily Current Affairs plays a very important role in one's complete preparation for competitive exams like IBPS PO/Clerk, RRB PO/Clerk, SBI, RBI, LIC& other banks, and insurance exams. The questions which come in exams and tickle you are framed from the current happenings taking place around the world. If prepared well it can help you in cracking your dream exam. Current Affairs is the most dynamic yet scoring among all sections and that is the reason, it should be prepared from the right source.


                      But just a mere reading of these current affairs is not enough to score well. You need to practice these current affairs by attempting the questions based on them, as per the exam pattern. So, for your all-round preparation, we have framed a Question Bank of 300 plus questions based on the current affairs of the month of August 2019. These questions will help you in a thorough revision of all the current affairs of the August month.

                      Watch the Video Here:



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                      IBPS PO Premium 2019 Online Test Series

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                      IBPS PO Premium 2019 Online Test Series

                      IBPS PO Official notification has been finally released by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection. The strenuous task to achieve your career goals without procrastinating has begun. Now, you must have yourself realized the dire need of keeping your casual attitude aside and sinking your teeth into the preparations.


                      To ace up your preparation, here is IBPS PO Premium 2019 Online Test Series by ADDA247. With this package, discover where you stand and how much more you need to strive, because, in this fight for IBPS exams, it's like, shape up or ship out, and you are the one who has to decide if to withstand the competition or quit. If you are willing to bring the house down then subscribe to IBPS PO  Premium 2019 Online Test Series while the going is good.

                      Package Includes:

                      IBPS PO Prelims 2019

                      • IBPS PO Prelims: 20 Full-Length Mocks with Video solutions.
                      • IBPS PO Prelims: 6 Previous Year’s Papers 2016, 2017 & 2018
                      • IBPS PO Prelims: 15 Section Wise Practice sets (5 Reasoning,5 Quant & 5 English)

                      20 Topic-wise Practice sets (20 Questions in Each set)

                      • Reasoning Topic Wise Practice sets:  2 Puzzle, 2 Seating arrangement, 2 Syllogism & 1 Inequality & 2 Miscellaneous 
                      • Quantitative Aptitude Topic Wise Practice sets: 2 DI, 2 Quadratic Equation, 2 Series 
                      • English Language Topic Wise Practice sets 2 Error Correction,1 Filler, 1 RC, 1 Cloze Test)  


                       IBPS PO Mains 2019

                      • IBPS PO Mains: 10 Full-Length Mocks with Video solutions
                      • IBPS PO Mains: 3 Previous year's Papers (2016, 2017 & 2018)
                      • IBPS PO Mains: 15 Section Wise Practice sets (5 Reasoning,5 Quant & 5 English)


                       eBooks

                      • Banking Awareness 2nd Edition eBook (Only English)
                      • Static Awareness eBook 2nd Edition (Only English)  
                      • Interview eBook (Only English)
                      • Descriptive eBook (Only English)

                       Ace E-Kit | (English / Hindi)

                      • Ace Quant
                      • Ace Reasoning 
                      • Ace English 
                      • 25 IBPS PO Prelims E-Mock Papers

                      Today's Pain Is Going To Give Pride In Future

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                      Everyone wants to have a better future but a few of them have the courage to go through the hardship it takes to become successful. It is not easy to get a sense of accomplishment or pride in one go. This takes a long time. The struggle you will go through today to achieve your goal will only help you in framing a better future. Successful people are the ones who have aced through all the pain and suffering. We humans are so comfort-loving that we rarely go out of our comfort zone. Those who never mind going out of the comfort zone are the ones who succeed. 

                      You must be thinking about which kind of pain we are talking about?

                      When we set a goal and put it in practice, it sounds easy but when we start working on it, the situation goes different. Working on a definite goal is not an easy task as hurdles, failures, etc can demoralize your journey. Your goal demands to disconnect yourself from people or friends as they can distract you. Your old habits of not utilizing every minute can also cost you. There may be times when you are supposed to tackle the situation which you never wanted to face. You have to fight with your weaknesses and situations all alone to get the desired results. 

                      The pain is an opportunity to resurrect our true selves

                      Life gives chances to everyone accompanied by hardships. Grabbing and understanding that chance is your choice. Whether you can choose to lead a normal life or you can choose the road which is less traveled i.e. the road of pain and suffering to achieve a definite goal is going to frame your future. If you are ready to win than no matter what comes in your way do not stop. Try to be unstoppable. Defeat your fears and chase your dreams. When you will start accepting your failure and suffering as a part of your life to gain your dream, you will win. The journey of hardship makes you stronger to deal with every situation. You can change your destiny with this pain and hardship. 

                      Be proud of your pain, for you are stronger than those with none

                      So what are you waiting for? Don't let your fear and comfort zone stop you from tasting pain and success. Because when you will look back either you will have a story to tell or a regret to bear. Choice is yours !! Be fearless. Be courageous.





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