Error Detection for IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam: 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 4:26 am

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IBPS Clerk Prelims is on its way and lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, English Language can be an impetus for their success by saving time and scoring well. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming IBPS Clerk exam.

Direction (1-15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error, mark option (e) as your answer. 

Q1. In less then seven years, (A) / by 2025, machines are projected to overtake humans in workplace (B) / task hours in 12 key industry sectors, according to (C) / a ‘Future of Jobs’ report by the World Economic Forum (WEF). (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘In less than seven years, by 2025, machines are projected to overtake humans in workplace..’ is the correct way of writing the given sentence.

Q2. “Workforce transformations are (A) / no longer an aspect of (B) / the distinct future,” said Klaus Schwab (C) / in the preface to the report. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘Workforce transformations are no longer an aspect of the distant future, said Klaus Schwab...’ is the correct sentence.

Q3. This might not have been surprising, since (A) / for many scholars Pakistan’s past, present and future has been (B) / sufficiently determined by and entangled (C) / with the military, or its numerous clandestine acts. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

“Pakistan’s past, present and future” is a plural phrase and hence would take helping verb ‘have’ instead of ‘has’. Hence (b) is the correct answer.

Q4. Maharashtra, despite several achievements in healthcare, (A) / does not have enough opportunities (B) for Ayurveda or homoeopathy professionals in the (C) government healthcare delivery systems. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

There is no error in the given sentence.

Q5. The study was conceptualised in (A) / the state and district levels with (B) / data collected from every (C) / nook and corner of the country. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘The study was conceptualised at the state and district levels with data collected from every nook and corner of the country’ is the correct sentence.

Q6. In 2018, humans performed an average (A) / of 71% of total task hours across 12 industries, (B) / spanning manufacturing, services and high tech, (C) / which are projected to fall to 48%. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

In the given sentence, the subject is ‘average’, which is a singular noun. Therefore, it will take the helping verb ‘is’ with it. Hence, ‘In 2018, humans performed an average of 71% of total task hours across 12 industries, spanning manufacturing, services and high tech, which is projected to fall to 48%’ is the correct statement.

Q7. While, perhaps one cannot take out both the military, or Islam, (A) / from an understanding of what constitutes Pakistan, (B) / this overwhelming focus on both, compromised (C) / the growth of social science in developing in a more meaningful manner. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘While, perhaps one cannot take out either/both the military, or/and Islam, from an understanding of what constitutes Pakistan, this overwhelming focus on both, compromised the growth of social science in developing in a more meaningful manner’ is the correct statement.

Q8. Further, informal discussions with BAMS (Bachelor of Ayurvedic Medicine and Surgery) and (A) / BHMS (Bachelor of Homoeopathic Medicine and Surgery) professionals from (B) / the state have helped understand (C) / their professional concerns and priorities. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘help’ is a transitive verb which means it takes a direct object with it which is missing in the given statement. Hence, ‘Further, informal discussions with BAMS (Bachelor of Ayurvedic Medicine and Surgery) and BHMS (Bachelor of Homoeopathic Medicine and Surgery) professionals from the state have helped us understand their professional concerns and priorities’ is the correct statement.

Q9. Mahatama Gandhi repeatedly opposed the idea of (A) / expropriating wealth or property from the rich, (B) / yet, for him, wealth did not (C) / “belong” with the rich owner. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘Mahatama Gandhi repeatedly opposed the idea of expropriating wealth or property from the rich, yet, for him, wealth did not “belong” to the rich owner’ is the correct statement.

Q10. The intentions of the resolution was to give (A) / equal status to BAMS and MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) graduates (B) / in terms of work and opportunities (C) / for promotion in the health department. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘The intention of the resolution was to give equal status to BAMS and MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) graduates in terms of work and opportunities for promotion in the health department’ is the correct statement.

Q11. If the wealthy and the (A) / educated wish, they can change (B) / the face of the city of (C) Ahmedabad in less than 5 years. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

The given statement is error free.

Q12. Broadly speaking, going by (A) / the global trends, almost 54% of (B) / Indian workers in the manufacturing (C) sector would need reskill by 2022. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘Broadly speaking, going by the global trends, almost 54% of Indian workers in the manufacturing sector would need reskilling by 2022’ is the correct statement.

Q13. The announcement followed a warning by (A) / an American businessman group that a “downward spiral” in their conflict (B) / appeared certain following Mr. Trump’s (C) / penalties on $200 billion of Chinese goods. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

‘The announcement followed a warning by an American business group that a “downward spiral” in their conflict appeared certain following Mr. Trump’s penalties on $200 billion of Chinese goods’ should be the correct statement here.

Q14. The Trump administration announced that the (A) / tariffs on some 5,000 Chinese-made goods (B) / will start by 10 percent, beginning Monday. (C) / They are to rise to 25 per cent by January 1. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

The given statement talks about the “start” of the tariffs, and something starts from/at some level/unit. Hence, ‘The Trump administration announced that the tariffs on some 5,000 Chinese-made goods will start at 10 percent, beginning Monday. They are to rise to 25 per cent by January 1’ is the correct statement.

Q15. “The downward spiral that we have (A) / previously warned about now (B) / seems certain to materialize,” (C) / William Zarit, said in a statement. (D) / No error. (E)

A

B

C

D

E

Solution:

The given statement talks about a warning that was given in the past. Hence, the correct way of writing it is – ‘The downward spiral that we had previously warned about....’

               

Download Free Topic-wise and Mock Test PDF 
You May also like to Read:

• Tips and Tricks To Solve Reading Comprehension
• Tips and Tricks to Solve Coherent Paragraph| Odd Sentence out
• 5 Tips and Tricks To Solve New Pattern Cloze Test      

                            

  

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Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Prelims: 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 4:46 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Questions for IBPS PO 2018

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS PO is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.

Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Eight persons are sitting to the left of B.H is immediate left to G. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E.

Q1. How many persons are sitting in the row?

Twelve

Ten

Fifteen

Eleven

None of these

Solution:

Eight persons are sitting to the left of B. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. There will be two cases ; case 1 F is right to B and case2 F is left to B.

The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Case2 gets eliminated. H is immediate left to G.

Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E. The final arrangement is:

Q2. How many persons are sitting between A and B?

seven

Ten

Eight

Eleven

None of these

Solution:
Eight persons are sitting to the left of B. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. There will be two cases ; case 1 F is right to B and case2 F is left to B.

The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Case2 gets eliminated. H is immediate left to G.

Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E. The final arrangement is:

Q3. If X sits exactly between H and D, then who among the following sits 4th right to X?

E

F

C

B

none of these

Solution:
Eight persons are sitting to the left of B. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. There will be two cases ; case 1 F is right to B and case2 F is left to B.

The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Case2 gets eliminated. H is immediate left to G.

Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E. The final arrangement is:

Q4. What is the position of C w.r.t D?

Sixth left

seventh right

eighth left

ninth right

none of these

Solution:
Eight persons are sitting to the left of B. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. There will be two cases ; case 1 F is right to B and case2 F is left to B.

The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Case2 gets eliminated. H is immediate left to G.

Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E. The final arrangement is:

Q5. If Z is 5th left to G, then how many persons are sitting between A and Z?

Two

One

Three

Four

None of these

Solution:
Eight persons are sitting to the left of B. Two persons sit between E and C, who is 3rd right to F. Only one person sits between B and F. There will be two cases ; case 1 F is right to B and case2 F is left to B.

The number of persons sitting between A and G is same as between G and D. A and D are left to B and not less than four persons sit between them. Case2 gets eliminated. H is immediate left to G.

Not more than ten sit between D and the one who is immediate right to E. The final arrangement is:

Directions (6-7): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 
If ‘P × Q’ means P is sister of Q. 
If ‘P – Q’ means P is son of Q. 
If ‘P ÷ Q’ means P is daughter of Q. 
If ‘P + Q’ means P is husband of Q. 

 Q6. In the given expression M÷R+S×U-W, how is R related to W?

Daughter in-law

Mother

Son in-law

Can’t determined

None of these

Solution:

Clearly, R is son in-law of W.

Q7. Which of the following expression means ‘F is aunt of A’?

E+D÷F×A

A×D-E+F

A-E×D-F

F-D÷E+A

A÷E×D+F

Solution:

Therefore, the expression A÷E×D+F represents that F is aunt of A.

Directions (8-12): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows as per the following arrangement.

The persons are at different designations in a company i.e. GM, DGM, AGM, CM, SM, manager, officer, clerk. The designation mentioned are in decreasing order of seniority. The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person. The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM. The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end.

Q8. What is the designation of the one who is immediate right to the clerk?

DGM

SM

Manager

CM

none of these

Solution:

The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM.

The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. So, there will be one more case in both the cases i.e. in one AGM sitting in the right most end and other in which GM sitting in right most end. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person.

The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other. 

The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. So, case2(a) case2(b) and case1(b) gets eliminated.

Q9. What is the designation of the one who sits at the left end in row 1?

DGM

SM

Manager

CM

none of these

Solution:
The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM.

The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. So, there will be one more case in both the cases i.e. in one AGM sitting in the right most end and other in which GM sitting in right most end. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person.

The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other.

The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. So, case2(a) case2(b) and case1(b) gets eliminated.

Q10. How many persons are sitting between the SM and officer?

Two

One

Three

Four

None of these

Solution:
The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM.

The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. So, there will be one more case in both the cases i.e. in one AGM sitting in the right most end and other in which GM sitting in right most end. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person.

The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other.

The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. So, case2(a) case2(b) and case1(b) gets eliminated.

Q11. Four of the following belongs to a group find the one that does not belong to that group?

DGM

SM

Manager

CM

GM

Solution:
The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM.

The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. So, there will be one more case in both the cases i.e. in one AGM sitting in the right most end and other in which GM sitting in right most end. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person.

The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other.

The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. So, case2(a) case2(b) and case1(b) gets eliminated.

Q12. Who among the following faces the one who is SM?

DGM

SM

Manager

CM

none of these

Solution:
The 2nd most junior faces the 4th most senior person. The one who is officer is 3rd from the left end. Only one person sits between the one who is CM and the one who is DGM.

The ones sitting at right ends are at immediate designation to each other. So, there will be one more case in both the cases i.e. in one AGM sitting in the right most end and other in which GM sitting in right most end. The senior most person faces the 3rd most junior person.

The persons who are immediate senior or immediate junior do not sit in same row or face each other.

The junior most person neither faces south nor sits at any end. So, case2(a) case2(b) and case1(b) gets eliminated.

Directions (13-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions: 
If A>B means A is not greater than B 
A=B means A is not greater than or equal to B 
A≤B means A is not smaller than B 
A≥B means A is not smaller than or equal to B 

Q13. Statements: A = L < T ≥ R >H ≥ K
Conclusions: I. H ≥ L        II. K ≥ T

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows

if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

if both conclusions I and II follow

Solution:

Decoded relations-
(I) H ≥ R < T = L [False]      (II) T > R ≤ H > K [False]

Q14. Statements: P ≤ N ≥ D ≤ G = B > J 
Conclusions: I. G = P     II. G = J

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows

if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

if both conclusions I and II follow

Solution:

Decoded relations-(I) G ≤ D

Q15. Statement: Q > E = I ≥ N < R ≤ S 
Conclusions: I. E ≤ S     II. S > N

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows

if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

if both conclusions I and II follow

Solution:c

Decoded relations-
(I) E < I > N = R ≥ S [False]           (II)N = R ≥ S [True]

               

You may also like to read:

• Reasoning Notes for Bank Exams IBPS PO, Clerk, RRB & SBI
• Check out Best Books for RBI Grade B Phase-I and Phase-II Preparation
• Reasoning Questions for SBI PO, Clerk, IBPS & RRB Bank Exams

         

                

When you're about to Quit, Remember why you Started

September 21, 2018, 5:26 am

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Dear Aspirants,

“Dare to Be

When a new day begins, dare to smile gratefully.

When there is darkness, dare to be the first to shine a light.

When something seems difficult, dare to do it anyway.

When life seems to beat you down, dare to fight back.

When you’re feeling tired, dare to keep going.

Dare to be the best you can –

At all times, Dare to be!” 

As a Government Job aspirant, the biggest thing that you require is patience alongwith determination.  They both are different words but keeping them together is not an easy job. Staying determined for your goal and waiting for success patiently takes a lot of Guts. But you have to dare to do it if you aspire to achieve something big in your life. 

Many exams like SBI PO, SBI Clerk, IBPS RRB PO and Clerk, Bank of Baroda etc have already been conducted. Many of you would have made it to the Mains and Interview. But there are many who could not make it in these exams. Now, this is the time when you have to decide which way you want to go. If you are about to quit, remember why you started. The past cannot be changed but the future is yet in your power. You still have the biggest exams IBPS PO and Clerk with you and you have to dare to get over your failures and get through these exams with your determination and hard work. The pain you will feel today will become your strength for tomorrow. So do not fear pain and give your best 

You have to stop giving excuses now that this is not right, that is not right. If you want to achieve it, target it and arise, awake, stop not and do whatever possible till your goal is achieved. Thinking about goals that you have not achieved will always demotivate you and pull you down. Use your failures positively. You are no less than anyone in the competition. If they can, then you can. Analyse your weaknesses and work upon them. You need to burn the candles at both ends if you really need to get over the exams. But in the end all your hard work and patience will pay you well. 

So now its time to set the ball rolling and start your preparations if you want to see yourself in a Government job next year. 

Arise, Awake and Sop not, till the Goal is Reached!!!

     

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Quantitative Aptitude (Number Series) Study Notes for Bank Exams: Download PDF

September 21, 2018, 5:22 am

≫ Next: Banking Awareness Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk | 21st September 2018

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Dear Aspirants, 

Study Notes is an effective strategy that helps you to learn about the subject. Your mind collects data of random details in the form of keywords, memory maps visualized during preparation. Just jot down main phrases, keywords, make memory maps and highlight important facts. This will not only help you to learn effectively but it will also play a crucial role during last minute quick revision.  

Here are the study notes of Quantitative Aptitude based on Number Series which will help you to ace your preparation.

In Banking or Insurance exams, generally two types of number series are asked. 

1. First one is Missing Number Series in which some numbers are given which are following certain pattern. Student is expected to find out the missing number.

2. Second one is Wrong Number Series in which some numbers are given but one number is wrong and does not follow the required pattern. Student is expected to find out the wrong number.

Following patterns have been frequently asked in banking exams which are further explained below in detail.

Single stage difference- 
1. 3, 23, 63, ?, 303 , 623   (Ans:- 143)
Pattern is:
+ 20, + 40, + 80, + 160, ………

2. 240, 205, 177, 156, 142, ?     (Ans:- 135)
Pattern is:
- 35, - 28, - 21, - 14, ………

Practice Set- 

Q1. 1028, 1012, 980, 932, 868, ?

(a) 748 (b) 698 (c) 798 (d) 788 (e) 688

Q2. 6, 18, 42, 90, 186, ?

(a) 390 (b) 384 (c) 360 (d) 370 (e) 378

Q3. 5, 12, 26, 47, 75, ?

(a) 100 (b) 115 (c) 105 (d) 110 (e) 125

Q4. 36,     45,     63,     90,     126,     ?

(a) 171 (b) 165 (c) 174 (d) 161 (e) 181

Q5. 21,     30,     55,     104,     225,     ?

(a) 388 (b) 372 (c) 380 (d) 394 (e) 398

Q6. 2,     3,       6,     15,     45,       ?       

(a) 1575 (b) 2575 (c) 157.5 (d) 257.5 (e) 158.5

Q7. 12,     13,     22,     47,     96,     ?

(a) 177 (b) 217 (c) 196 (d) 160 (e) 172

Q8. 12,     65,     264,     ? ,     1592,     1593

(a) 760 (b) 795 (c) 780 (d) 785 (e) 775

Q9. 9,     5,     6,     ? ,     23,     60,     183,     

(a) 10.5 (b) 12 (c) 9.5 (d) 10 (e) 9

Q10. 5,     6,     21,     110,     777,     ?

(a) 6993 (b) 4668 (c) 7002 (d) 7780 (e) 8558

Solutions (Q1-10):

   

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Banking Awareness Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk | 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 5:44 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Banking Awareness for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk  Exam 2018

With the increased competition in the field of banking examinations, it has now become very important to cover up all the sections efficiently. One subject that can help you bagging graceful marks in the minimum time in these examinations is Banking Awareness. Banking Awareness Quiz not only helps you deal with the General Awareness Section of Banking Exams but also, the Personal Interview round of Banking Recruitment.

Q1. The government of India cleared the appointment of CEOs and MDs at 10 Public Sector Banks recently. Who has been appointed as MD and CEO of Indian Bank?

Pallav Mohapatra

Karnam Sekar

Padmaja Chundru

Mrutyunjay Mahapatra

Packirisamy

Solution:

The government on September 19 cleared the appointment of chief executive officers and managing directors (CEOs and MDs) at 10 public sector banks. They are part of the 15 names recommended by the Bank Boards Bureau for elevation. Padmaja Chundru appointed as MD and CEO of Indian Bank.

Q2. Who has been appointed as MD and CEO of Syndicate Bank?

Pallav Mohapatra

Karnam Sekar

Padmaja Chundru

Mrutyunjay Mahapatra

Packirisamy

Solution:

Mrutyunjay Mahapatra has been appointed as MD and CEO of Syndicate Bank.

Q3. Pallav Mohapatra is appointed as MD and CEO of-

Central Bank of India

Andhra Bank

Dena Bank

Syndicate Bank

Indian Bank

Solution:

Pallav Mohapatra is appointed as MD and CEO of Central Bank of India.

Q4. Packirisamy is appointed as MD and CEO of-

Central Bank of India

Andhra Bank

Dena Bank

Syndicate Bank

Indian Bank

Solution:

Packirisamy is appointed as MD and CEO of Andhra Bank.

Q5. Who has been appointed as MD and CEO of Dena Bank?

Pallav Mohapatra

Mrutyunjay Mahapatra

Padmaja Chundru

Packirisamy

Karnam Sekar

Solution:

Karnam Seka has been appointed as MD and CEO of Dena Bank.

Q6. Name the person, who has been appointed as CEO and MD of Allahabad Bank.

Ashok Kumar Pradhan

Atul Kumar Goel

S Harisankar

AS Rajeev

SS Mallikarajuna Rao

Solution:

SS Mallikarajuna Rao has been appointed as CEO and MD of Allahabad Bank Allahabad Bank.

Q7. Atul Kumar Goel is appointed as MD and CEO of-

Allahabad Bank

United Bank of India

Punjab & Sind Bank

UCO Bank

Bank of Maharashtra

Solution:

SS Mallikarajuna Rao is appointed as MD and CEO of UCO Bank

Q8. Indian Bank is an Indian state-owned financial services company established in 1907 and headquartered in-

Mumbai

Kolkata

Chennai

New Delhi

Bengaluru

Solution:

Indian Bank is an Indian state-owned financial services company established in 1907 and headquartered in Chennai, India.

Q9. The Syndicate bank logo is "Faithful Friendly" with the symbol of which animal?

Cow

Dog

Cat

Hen

Ass

Solution:

The Syndicate Bank has undertaken a comprehensive exercise on changing the back-ground colour/repositioning of the Logo of the Bank. The repositioning of the Logo has been done with major changes in the basic colour retaining the picture of "DOG", symbolizing the tradition of faithfulness and friendliness. The pictorial dog of the Logo is in sync with our Bank motto -'Faithful and Friendly'. The combination of Orange, Yellow and White colours give uniqueness to Logo of Syndicate Bank.

Q10. Central Bank of India is one of the oldest and largest commercial banks in India. It is based in-

Mumbai

Kolkata

Chennai

New Delhi

Bengaluru

Solution:

Central Bank of India, a government-owned bank, is one of the oldest and largest commercial banks in India. It is based in Mumbai.

Q11. Andhra Bank is a medium-sized public sector bank of India. What is the tagline of Andhra Bank?

Your Own Bank

A Tradition of Trust

One Family One Bank

Where India Banks

Relationship Beyond Banking

Solution:

Andhra Bank is a medium-sized public sector bank of India. The Tagline of Andhra Bank is "Where India Banks".

Q12. Where is the headquartered of Andhra Bank?

Hyderabad

Mengaluru

Pune

Gurugram

Nagpur

Solution:

Headquartered of Andhra Bank is in Hyderabad.

Q13. Dena Bank is based in-

Bengaluru

Kolkata

Chennai

New Delhi

Mumbai

Solution:

Dena Bank is headquartered in Mumbai.

Q14. Name the person, who has been appointed as CEO and MD of Bank of Maharashtra?

Ashok Kumar Pradhan

SS Mallikarajuna Rao

AS Rajeev

S Harisankar

Atul Kumar Goel

Solution:

AS Rajeev has been appointed as CEO and MD of Bank of Maharashtra.

Q15. Ashok Kumar Pradhan is appointed as MD and CEO of-

Bank of Maharashtra

United Bank of India

Punjab & Sind Bank

UCO Bank

Allahabad Bank

Solution:

Ashok Kumar Pradhan is appointed as MD and CEO of United Bank of India.

               

Download Free Topic-wise and Mock Test PDF

You may also like to read:

• GK Capsules and PDF for Bank Exams
• Free Practice Test Papers for Bank Exams
• Study Notes for All Banking Exams 2018

    

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Current Affairs 21st September 2018: Daily GK Update

September 21, 2018, 6:28 am

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Dear Aspirants,

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!

National News

1. World Bank Approves Country Partnership Framework for India

i. World Bank Board has endorsed an ambitious five-year Country Partnership Framework (CPF) for India, which aligns with New Delhi's objectives of high, sustainable and inclusive growth. The framework is expected to bring between 25 and 30 billion US Dollars in financial support to India.

ii. The move is aimed at supporting India's transition to a higher middle-income country by addressing some of its key development priorities such as resource efficient and inclusive growth, job creation and building its human capital. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important for RRB PO Mains Exam 2018- 

• The President of the World Bank is Jim Yong Kim.
• The World Bank Headquarters in Washington, D.C., United States.

2. Health Ministry Partners With Dell And Tata Trusts

i. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, exchanged the MoUs with the Tata Trusts and Dell to provide a technological platform for nation wide prevention, control, screening and management program of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs). 
ii. Anupriya Patel, Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare released the user manual for NCD application under Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) IT Solutions.

iii. Aimed at bringing healthcare technology transformation in Comprehensive Primary Health Care NCD program under Ayushman Bharat, the Health Ministry is working with Dell as a technology partner and the Tata Trusts as deployment partner. 

3. India Contributes 1 Million to UN's Ambitious Solar Project

i. India has contributed one million US dollars for the installation of solar panels on the roof of the imposing UN building at the world body's headquarters in New York. The contribution will help reduce carbon footprint and promote sustainable energy.
ii. According to India's Permanent Representative to the UN Ambassador Syed Akbaruddin, India is the first responder to Secretary-General Antonio Guterres' call for climate action. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important for RRB PO Mains Exam 2018- 

• Antonio Guterres is the Secretary-General of the United Nations.
• The UN Headquarters in New York, United States.

4. MHA Signs MoU with ISRO To Set Up An Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response 

i. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), Department of Space signed an MoU for setting up of an state-of-the-art Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response (ICR-ER) in Ministry of Home Affairs.
ii. ISRO will render its technical expertise for setting up of proposed ICR-ER whereas the project will be executed under overall supervision of MHA. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important for Indian Bank PO Exam 2018- 

• ISRO Chairman: Dr. K Sivan, Headquarters in- Bengaluru, Karnataka. 

5. DRDO Successfully Flight Tested Tactical Missile ‘Prahar’ 

i. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight tested the indigenously developed surface-to-surface tactical missile ‘Prahar’, from Launch Complex-III, ITR, Balasore, Odisha. 

ii. Range stations and electro-optical systems tracked the missile throughout its flight. ‘Prahar’ is a contemporary weapon system capable of carrying multiple types of warheads and neutralizing a wide variety of targets. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important for Indian Bank PO Exam 2018- 

• DRDO Headquarters in: New Delhi, Founded in: 1958. 
• Dr G Satheesh Reddy is the present Chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). 

6. PM Modi Laid Foundation Stone For World-Class Convention Centre In Delhi 

i. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC) in Dwarka, New Delhi. The facilities provided at the centre will be on par with the best in the world in size and quality. 

ii. It will rank among the top 10 in the world and the biggest indoor exhibition space in India. The project is planned over an area of 221.37 acres in Sector 25, Dwarka, at an estimated cost of Rs 25,703 crore. 

International News

7. Vice President 3-Nation Visit to Serbia, Malta and Romania: Complete Highlights 

i. The Vice President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu was on an official Visit to Serbia, Malta and Romania and returned after a successful official visit. The visit was characterised by extremely cordial discussions with Heads of Governments, PMs and other senior political leaders. 

ii. Some key outcomes: 

1. Support for India’s aspiration to be on UNSC and for taking forward UN reforms.

2. Endorsement of India’s stand on terror and support for early adoption of United Nation’s Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism.
Find All the Outcomes Here


8. International Day of Peace: 21 September 

i. Each year the International Day of Peace is observed around the world on 21 September. 

ii. The theme for International Day of Peace 2018 is “The Right to Peace - The Universal Declaration of Human Rights at 70”. The theme celebrates the 70th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important for Indian Bank PO Exam 2018- 

• Antonio Guterres is the Secretary-General of the United Nations.
• The UN Headquarters in New York, United States.

Awards

9. Anushka Sharma Receives Smita Patil Award

i. Union Transport Minister felicitated Bollywood actor Anushka Sharma during the 34th anniversary of Priyadarshni Academy Global Award, in Mumbai. She received the Smita Patil award for best actor.

Practice More Current Affairs and Banking Quizzes

You may also like to Read:

• Study notes of banking awareness for IBPS Exams 2018
• Static GK for all Bank & SSC Exams
• Current Affair Notes for Upcoming Exams

        

Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains: 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 7:07 am

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Dear Students,

Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.

Q1. In a shopping mall marked price of a t - shirt is  100/3% less than marked price of a shirt. There are two discounts schemes P & Q. In Scheme P, if someone buy one shirt and one t - shirt together, then store gives overall discount of 35%, while in scheme Q if someone buy one t -shirt and one shirt separately, store gives 20% discount on t - shirt and 25% on shirt. If difference between selling price of one shirt and one t –shirt together in scheme P and Q is Rs. 384 then find cost price of one t - shirt & one shirt, given that store made a profit of  100/3% on t - shirt and profit of 25% on shirt, when it sold one shirt and one t -shirt in scheme Q? 
(a) 720 Rs, 1150 Rs
(b) 768 Rs. 1152 Rs.
(c) 786 Rs. 1168 Rs.
(d) 796 Rs. 1144 Rs.
(e) 790 Rs. 1108 Rs.

Q2.  Two bags contain 4 and 16 flags respectively. Two flags in the first bag and four in the second bag are red. If a bag is chosen randomly and two flags are drawn at random from it, what is the probability that at least one flag is red?
(a) 11/20
(b) 43/120
(c) 77/120
(d) 9/20
(e) 7/23

Q3.  Average of three amounts is Rs.460 and they are in the ratio of 6 : 8 : 9. If we increase the first by 20% and decrease the second by 10% then to get the average increased by 5% third amount will be increased by ?  
(a) 12/5%
(b) 25/3%
(c) 7%
(d) 7 1/3%
(e) 8%

Q4. A man swims with the direction of the current from point X to Y and then returns against the current and stop at point Z. Distance between Y and Z is 75% of distance between X and Y and man takes 9 hours to cover total distance. If distance between X to Y is 40 Km and Speed of current is 2 km/hr, then find speed of man in still water?  
(a) 6 km/hr
(b)  8 km/hr
(c) 4 km/hr
(d)  9 km/hr
(e) 10 km/hr

Q5. Three students Akash, Virendra and Sagar got Rs. P, Rs. (P+2400) and Rs. (P+4400) as their scholarship. Akash and Virendra deposited their half of scholarship on CI at the rate of 10% and 20% respectively for two years in two different schemes. Sagar deposited 60% of his scholarship on simple interest at the rate of 15% p.a. for three years in another scheme. If Sagar got Rs. 132 more as interest got by Akash and Virendra together, then find the scholarship got by Sagar? 
(a) 12000 Rs.
(b) 10000 Rs.
(c) 14400 Rs.
(d) 14000 Rs.
(e) 18000 Rs.

Directions (6-10): Given below pie chart (I) shows percentage distribution of total filled quantity of alcohol in seven buckets. Line graph shows time (minutes) taken by seven taps P, Q, R, S, T, U and V in filling buckets A, B, C, D, E, F and G respectively. Give the answer of the question according to given data: 

Q6. A man has a tank which has quantity of alcohol equal to the quantity of alcohol in A and E together. He opened tap Q and S together for filling his tank. After ‘n’ minutes man closed both taps and opened taps R and T for filling remaining tank. If tank filled in next (n + 15) minutes then find how many liter of alcohol filled by Q and S together? 
(a) 160 li
(b)180 li
(c)150 li
(d)120 li
(e)144 li

Q7. For filling bucket D, man opened tap S which fills the tank with 20% more efficiently. After X minutes man close the tap S and opened tap R and V together. Tap R fills the bucket with 25% more efficiency. If tap R and V fills remaining bucket in 15 minutes then find the value of X ?  
(a)12 minutes
(b)10 minutes
(c)15 minutes
(d) 8 minutes
(e) 18 minutes

Q10.  A man has a tank of 570 liter. Man opened three taps Q, S and R together for filling the tank, but tap R fills the tank at 175% of its initial Efficiency. There is a leak at a height of 2/3 from the bottom of tank, which empty the tank with half of the efficiency of what Q, S and R filling the tank. Man noticed the leak after 32 minutes and closed all taps and leak. Find how many more liters of alcohol can be filled in that tank? 
(a) 90l
(b) 76l
(c) 78l
(d) 85l
(e) 96l

Directions (11-15): What will come in place of (?) in the following number series?
Q11. 23, 29, 17, 35, ?,  41
(a) 13
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 18
(e) 21

Q12. 6, 10, 17, 28.5,  46.75,  ?
(a) 77.125
(b) 76.125
(c) 75.125
(d) 75.25
(e) 72.75

Q13. 670, 894, 1150, 1438,  ?
(a) 1758
(b) 1594
(c) 1930
(d) 1290
(e) 1225

Q14. 3, 5, 19, 101,  ?,  6445
(a) 710
(b)712
(c) 714
(d) 715
(e) 725

Q15. 7, 8, 16, 12, 41, 28,  ?
(a) 90
(b) 85
(c) 92
(d) 86
(e) 84

Check the detailed solutions here...

You May also like to Read:

• Quantitative Aptitude Study Notes for Bank Exams
• 100 MCQs Data Interpretation | Download Free PDF's of DI
• Quantitative Aptitude Questions for all Competitive Exams

          

   

Government Appoints New MD & CEOs At 10 PSBs: Here Is All You Need To Know

September 21, 2018, 7:43 am

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The government of India cleared the appointment of Chief Executive Officers and Managing Directors (CEOs and MDs) at 10 Public Sector Banks (PSBs). They are part of the 15 names recommended by the Bank Boards Bureau for elevation. Of those named, five are currently the deputy managing directors of State Bank of India (SBI) while the other five are executive directors (EDs) at different government-owned banks.

Here is the list of people appointed as MD and CEO at various PSBs:

1. Padmaja Chundru - Indian Bank. 

2. Mrutyunjay Mahapatra - Syndicate Bank. 

3. Pallav Mohapatra - Central Bank of India. 

4. Packirisamy - Andhra Bank. 

5. Karnam Sekar - Dena Bank. 

*All of the above people are currently deputy MDs at SBI.

6. SS Mallikarajuna Rao - Allahabad Bank - He is currently the ED of Syndicate Bank. 

7. AS Rajeev - Bank of Maharashtra - He is currently the ED of Indian Bank. 

8. Atul Kumar Goel - UCO Bank - He is currently the ED at Union Bank of India.

9. S Harisankar - Punjab & Sind Bank. He is currently the Executive Director of Allahabad Bank.

10. Ashok Kumar Pradhan - United Bank of India - He is currently the ED of United Bank of India.

Headquarters and Taglines of the Above Banks are: 

• Indian Bank: Chennai, "Your Own Bank".
• Syndicate Bank: Manipal, "Your Faithful and Friendly Financial Partner"
• Central Bank of India: Mumbai, “Central” to You Since 1911
• Andhra Bank: Hyderabad, "Where India Bank"
• Dena Bank: Mumbai, "Trusted Family Bank"
• Allahabad Bank: Kolkata, "A Tradition of Trust"
• Bank of Maharashtra: Pune, "One Family One Bank"
• UCO Bank: Kolkata, "Honours Your Trust"
• Punjab & Sind Bank: New Delhi, "Where Service is a Way of Life"
• United Bank of India: Kolkata, The Bank that Begins with “U”.

   

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Reasoning Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 8:28 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS Clerk Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.

Directions (1-5): In each question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 

Q1. Statements: All sugar is salt. 
                            Some cup are stick. 
                            No stick is sugar. 
Conclusions: I. All cup are salt is a possibility. 
                      II. Some stick are salt.

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

Q2. Statements: Some crow is bat. 
                            Some bat are cat. 
                            All bat are fly. 
Conclusions: I. Some fly are not cat. 
                      II. Some crow can be cat.

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

Q3. Statements: All bottle are jug. 
                            No jug is mug. 
                            No mug are cap. 
Conclusions: I. Some bottle are cap. 
                      II. Some cap are not bottle. 

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

Q4. Statements: All states are city. 
                            Some country are world. 
                            No world is state. 
Conclusions: I. Some city are state. 
                      II. All state are country is a possibility.

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

Q5. Statements: Some bat are ball. 
                            Some pen are mouse. 
                            Some ball are pen. 
Conclusions: I. Some bat are pen. 
                      II. Some ball are mouse.

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following information and answer the questions. 

Eight friends L, M, N, O, A, B, C and D are seated in a row, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and some are facing south. A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. D is not an immediate neighbour of C. The immediate neighbours of L face opposite direction. The persons who are sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions. M sits second to the left of B. B does not face south. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. The immediate neighbours of B face same direction. Both A and M faces in the same direction but opposite to that of O. Only three people sit between A and C. D sits on the immediate left of L. 

Q6. As per the given arrangements, which of the following statements is not true with respect to N? 

N faces south.

N is fourth to the right of B.

N is 2nd to left of M

N sits to the right of O

None of these

Solution:

(i). By using the given conditions, A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. Only three people sit between A and C. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. M sits second to the left of B. B faces north. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. So, we get three possible cases:

(ii). By using the remaining conditions, D sits on the immediate left of L, so from this condition case 1 and case 3 get eliminated . D is not an immediate neighbour of C, from this the position of D will be fixed. The immediate neighbours of L faces opposite directions. So, C faces south and D faces in north. The persons sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.ie. N faces south direction. The immediate neighbours of B faces same directions. i.e. O faces south. Both A and M face a direction opposite to that of O. So, we finally get the final solution:

Q7. How many persons sit on the left of C?

one

two

three

four

none of these

Solution:

(i). By using the given conditions, A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. Only three people sit between A and C. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. M sits second to the left of B. B faces north. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. So, we get three possible cases:

(ii). By using the remaining conditions, D sits on the immediate left of L, so from this condition case 1 and case 3 get eliminated . D is not an immediate neighbour of C, from this the position of D will be fixed. The immediate neighbours of L faces opposite directions. So, C faces south and D faces in north. The persons sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.ie. N faces south direction. The immediate neighbours of B faces same directions. i.e. O faces south. Both A and M face a direction opposite to that of O. So, we finally get the final solution:

Q8. What is the position of L with respect to O?

Immediate left

Third to left

Third to right

Fourth to left

None of these

Solution:

(i). By using the given conditions, A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. Only three people sit between A and C. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. M sits second to the left of B. B faces north. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. So, we get three possible cases:

(ii). By using the remaining conditions, D sits on the immediate left of L, so from this condition case 1 and case 3 get eliminated . D is not an immediate neighbour of C, from this the position of D will be fixed. The immediate neighbours of L faces opposite directions. So, C faces south and D faces in north. The persons sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.ie. N faces south direction. The immediate neighbours of B faces same directions. i.e. O faces south. Both A and M face a direction opposite to that of O. So, we finally get the final solution:

Q9. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends?

N, O

A, D

C, B

N, D

None of these

Solution:

(i). By using the given conditions, A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. Only three people sit between A and C. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. M sits second to the left of B. B faces north. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. So, we get three possible cases:

(ii). By using the remaining conditions, D sits on the immediate left of L, so from this condition case 1 and case 3 get eliminated . D is not an immediate neighbour of C, from this the position of D will be fixed. The immediate neighbours of L faces opposite directions. So, C faces south and D faces in north. The persons sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.ie. N faces south direction. The immediate neighbours of B faces same directions. i.e. O faces south. Both A and M face a direction opposite to that of O. So, we finally get the final solution:

Q10. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

N

M

L

B

C

Solution:

(i). By using the given conditions, A is sitting at 2nd position from the extreme end of the row. Only three people sit between A and C. O sits second to the right of C. O does not sit at an extreme end of the row. M sits second to the left of B. B faces north. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. So, we get three possible cases:

(ii). By using the remaining conditions, D sits on the immediate left of L, so from this condition case 1 and case 3 get eliminated . D is not an immediate neighbour of C, from this the position of D will be fixed. The immediate neighbours of L faces opposite directions. So, C faces south and D faces in north. The persons sitting at the extreme ends face opposite directions.ie. N faces south direction. The immediate neighbours of B faces same directions. i.e. O faces south. Both A and M face a direction opposite to that of O. So, we finally get the final solution:

Directions (11-15): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 

Q11. Statement: H<B; H≥D>E; G≥F>B

          Conclusion: I. E≥B         II. F≥H

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

if both conclusions I and II are true.

Solution:
I. E≥B (false)        II. F≥H (false)

Q12. Statement: K<J; D≤S=J; I>S; H≥J

          Conclusion: I. I>H           II. H≥I

if both conclusion I and II are true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if only conclusion II is true.

Solution:

I. I>H(False)           II. H≥I (False)

Q13. Statement: J<L; K≥S; K≥O; S>L≥T

          Conclusion: I. L>O     II. O>T

if only conclusion II is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if both conclusions I and II are true.

Solution:

I. L>O(false)     II. O>T (false)      

Q14. Statement: T>N; A>S>Q; A<N

          Conclusion: I.T>Q       II. T>S

if only conclusion II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if both conclusions I and II are true.

Solution:

I.T>Q(true)       II. T>S(true)

Q15. Statement: B≤C; B≤D; C=N; D<S

          Conclusion: I. S≤C          II. N≥S

if only conclusion II is true.

if either conclusion I or II is true.

if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

if only conclusion I is true.

if both conclusions I and II are true.

Solution:

I. S≤C (False)         II. N≥S (False)

               

You may also like to read:

• Reasoning Notes for Bank Exams IBPS PO, Clerk, RRB & SBI
• Check out Best Books for RBI Grade B Phase-I and Phase-II Preparation
• Reasoning Questions for SBI PO, Clerk, IBPS & RRB Bank Exams

         

                

BA Study Kit: 21st September 2018

September 21, 2018, 9:15 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.

Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk,  RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!!

1. NIACL Assistant Mains Exam 2018 Strategy

2. Current Affairs Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam: 21st September 2018

3. IBPS PO 2018 Online Test Series | Start Your Preparation for IBPS PO

4. Face Off: IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam 2018 | Be Ready For The Challenge

5. SBI Clerk Mains Result 2018 Out: Check Here

6. Congratulations to all Successful Candidates of SBI Clerk !!!!

7. MAHA SANGRAM IBPS Clerk Pre+Mains Complete Batch (Maths, Reasoning, English & GA)

8. Failure Defeats Losers But it Inspires Winners.

9. IBPS PO/CLERK | New Pattern Error Detection | Saurabh Sir | 4:30 P.M.

10. Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam: 21st September 2018

11. "The Cracker" For Bank Mains Exams By Adda247 Publications

12. Error Detection for IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam: 21st September 2018

13. Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Prelims: 21st September 2018

14. When you're about to Quit, Remember why you Started

15. Quantitative Aptitude (Number Series) Study Notes for Bank Exams: Download PDF

16. Banking Awareness Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk | 21st September 2018

17.  Current Affairs 21st September 2018: Daily GK Update 

18. Government Appoints New MD & CEOs At 10 PSBs: Here Is All You Need To Know 

19. Reasoning Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 21st September 2018

20. Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains: 21st September 2018

The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. All the Best for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains!!

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NIACL Assistant Mains Call Letter out | Download Now

September 21, 2018, 9:14 am

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Dear Students,

The New India Assurance Company Ltd (NIACL) has released the online exam call letter (Admit Card) of Mains exam for the post of Assistants. All the students who were waiting for the admit cards can download the call letters by clicking on the link provided below.

Important Dates

Commencement of Call letter Download: 21 - 09 - 2018
Closure of Call letter Download: 06 - 10 - 2018

Download the Mains Call Letter for NIACL Assistant

   

SBI Clerk Mains Result 2018 Out: Check Here

September 21, 2018, 5:48 am

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Dear Aspirants,

The much awaited result that is SBI Junior Associates (Clerk) main examination 2018 is Out. The online main exam was held on 05th of August 2018 and all the candidates who had appeared in this exam can check their results on 22nd September.  SBI has also declared the joining of selected candidates will be by 1st week of December, 2018. Check the list of Selected Provisionally Selected Candidates for appointment in SBI Clerk. 

Check the List of Selected Candidates 

   

Congratulations to all the Selected Candidates!! 

Send Your Success Stories at Blogger@adda247.com

Face Off: IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam 2018 | Be Ready For The Challenge

September 21, 2018, 9:44 pm

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Dear Students, IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam will be held on 7th October and all of you must have already started to give that final touch to your preparations. And, before you appear for an examination, you should have a clear idea of your strengths and weaknesses so that you attempt it with the best strategy possible.

Practice is always the best way to gauge how well prepared you are to tackle the upcoming examination. So, Adda247 is here with IBPS RRB PO Mains Face Off that will be attempted by a great number of students who will appear for this year's IBPS RRB Mains Examination. This mock will be available for free on 23rd of September 2018 on Adda247 Online Store and Mobile Application. You can avail the mock for free by applying the coupon code FACE18.

Attempting this mock will help you know if you are ready to face this toilsome competition to secure a position in India's leading Regional Rural Banks. And, you will also get to know about your position among all the candidates who will be competing against you on the day of real examination. 

You still have time to brush yourself off to face the real competition and this can only be done if you have a fair idea of what still remains to be given a final touch. With this mock, know where you lag, work on your weaknesses and bring it off this time.

      

You may also like to read:

• How Hindi Medium Students Can Score Good Marks In English Section of IBPS PO Exam
• IBPS PO 2018 Quantitative Aptitude: Important Topics To Prepare
• Important Topics For English Language Section Of IBPS PO 2018

Equinox Day Sale | 25% Discount On All Adda247 Video Courses, Test Series And Ebooks

September 22, 2018, 12:22 am

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Dear Students, Adda247 brings to you a big fat offer, Flat 25% off on all its video courses, test series and ebooks for Banking, SSC, Railways, Teaching and other competitive exams. You can now get the compact study material to prepare for the examination you are interested in for one fourth its actual price with this offer. The offer on video courses starts today and will be valid for 2 days.

Use Coupon Code: ED100

Offer Valid On 22nd & 23rd September

The video courses, test series and ebooks of Adda247 cover up all the topics of each and every subject that you need to be excellent at for all the upcoming banking as well as SSC exams. Adda247, being cognizant of the needs of government job aspirants, has now come up with it with cost-effective and efficient study material that can be accessed anytime, anywhere without having to worry about the availability of a coaching center in your locality. These Banking, SSC and other Video Courses, Test Series and Ebooks comprise of theories and videos starting from basics to the highest level that one can go to while preparing for the competitive exams.

So, students, the time has come, it's a good time to try your luck, you should strike while the iron is hot. You still have enough time to prepare for the exams that are queued up to be held in upcoming months. Do not wait in the wings and begin today itself.

       

IBPS PO-VIII PET Admit Card Out | Download IBPS PO 2018 PET Call Letter

September 21, 2018, 11:15 pm

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Dear Aspirant,

IBPS has activated the link of Pre Exam Training Call Letter for  CRP PO/MT-VIII-Recruitment of Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees in Participating Organisations. You can Download your call letter/admit card from the link given below. 

Important Dates: 

Commencement of Call letter Download: 21st September 2018

Closure of Call letter Download: 07th of October 2018 

Download the PET Call Letter for IBPS PO/MT-VIII

You may also like to Read:

• IBPS PO Prelims Exam Strategy 2018
• How To Improve Calculation Speed For IBPS PO Exam 2018
• IBPS PO Recruitment 2018: Changes in Exam Pattern

         

All the Very Best BA'IANS for IBPS PO Exam 2018!!

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Last Chance | 50 seats Extended | Puri English Fateh Batch By Saurabh Sir | Call 9958500766

September 22, 2018, 12:20 am

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Dear Aspirants, 

IBPS PO/CLERK | 5 Error Detection, 5 Fillers , 5 Cloze Test | English | Anchal Ma’am | 10A.M. |

The Editorial Today | Editorial Discussion | The Hindu Analysis | Vishal Sir | 9 A.M.

The Hindu | Daily Current Affairs | Current Affairs | 22th September | Railways, Bank, SSC | 8 A.M

Mission IBPS | Inequality + Puzzles | Lecture 14 | Pre + Mains 2018 | 7AM | Radhey Sir

You may also like to read:

• Practice with Current Affairs Questions based on The Hindu.
• Practice with Reasoning Ability Questions and Solutions
• Practice with Quantitative Aptitude Questions and Solutions

              

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam: 22nd September 2018

September 22, 2018, 12:13 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Current Affairs Quiz for IBPS RRB Mains 2018

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Apart from the GA Section, an excellent knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.

Q1. India has contributed _____ US dollars for the installation of solar panels on the roof of the imposing UN building at the world body's headquarters in New York.

500 million

1 billion

10 million

1 million

5 million

Solution:

India has contributed one million US dollars for the installation of solar panels on the roof of the imposing UN building at the world body's headquarters in New York.

Q2. World Bank Board has endorsed an ambitious _____Country Partnership Framework (CPF) for India, which aligns with New Delhi's objectives of high, sustainable and inclusive growth.

Four-year

Three-year

Five-year

Ten-year

Two-year

Solution:

World Bank Board has endorsed an ambitious five-year Country Partnership Framework (CPF) for India, which aligns with New Delhi's objectives of high, sustainable and inclusive growth.

Q3. Under Ayushman Bharat, the Health Ministry is working with ______ as a technology partner and the Tata Trusts as deployment partner.

Wipro

Infosys

TCS

HP

Dell

Solution:

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, exchanged the MoUs with the Tata Trusts and Dell to provide a technological platform for nationwide prevention, control, screening and management program of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs).

Q4. The International Day of Peace is observed around the world on_____.

15 September

21 September

21 August

18 July

2 October

Solution:

Each year the International Day of Peace is observed around the world on 21 September. The General Assembly has declared this as a day devoted to strengthening the ideals of peace, both within and among all nations and peoples.

Q5. The theme for International Day of Peace 2018 is _____.

Human Rights at 70

Social justice for all

The Right to live Peacefully

The Right to Peace - The Universal Declaration of Human Rights at 70

None of the above option is true

Solution:

The theme for International Day of Peace 2018 is “The Right to Peace - The Universal Declaration of Human Rights at 70”. The theme celebrates the 70th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Q6. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight tested the indigenously developed surface-to-surface tactical missile _____ recently.

Prahar

Arjun

Nag

Agni-III

Dhanush

Solution:

Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight tested the indigenously developed surface-to-surface tactical missile ‘Prahar’, from Launch Complex-III, ITR, Balasore, Odisha.

Q7. Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently laid the foundation stone of India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC) in _____.

Hyderabad

Mumbai

New Delhi

Jaipur

Varanasi

Solution:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC) in Dwarka, New Delhi. The project is planned over an area of 221.37 acres in Sector 25, Dwarka, at an estimated cost of Rs 25,703 crore.

Q8. The Vice President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu was on an official Visit to 3 countries Serbia, Malta and ______.

Uganda

France

Spain

Niger

Romania

Solution:

The Vice President of India, M. Venkaiah Naidu was on an official Visit to Serbia, Malta and Romania and returned after a successful official visit. The visit was characterised by extremely cordial discussions with Heads of Governments, PMs and other senior political leaders.

Q9. Which actress recently won the Smita Patil award for best actor?

Sonam Kapoor

Priyanka Chopra

Alia Bhatt

Anushka Sharma

Shradha kapoor

Solution:

Union Transport Minister felicitated Bollywood actor Anushka Sharma during the 34th anniversary of Priyadarshni Academy Global Award, in Mumbai. She received the Smita Patil award for best actor.

Q10. ISRO will render its technical expertise for setting up of proposed ICR-ER whereas the project will be executed under overall supervision of MHA. In ICR-ER, what does E stand for?

Earth

Emergency

Education

Educators

Empowerment

Solution:

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), Department of Space signed an MoU for setting up of a state-of-the-art Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response (ICR-ER) in Ministry of Home Affairs.

               


Download Free Topic-wise and Mock Test PDF

You may also like to Read:

• Study notes of banking awareness for IBPS Exam
• More questions of banking awareness for bank exams
• More Current Affairs Questions

            

    

Lakshya IBPS Clerk Pre+Mains Live Batch By Sumit Sir: 50 SEats Extended

September 22, 2018, 2:57 am

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Dear students, as Quantitative Aptitude is an essential part of IBPS examinations, many of you must be anxious about attempting this section during the examination. The level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, no doubt this section too can make one's blood run cold. As per the analysis of previous examinations, the questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. Data Interpretation and topics from arithmetic section make it hard for one to deal with the section as easily as any other section. But you should not forget that a mix of accuracy and a good number of attempts can definitely turn the situation round in Quantitative Aptitude Section. And to ease your way to ace the grades in this section, Adda247 brings to you a special online batch "Lakshya IBPS Clerk Pre+Mains Live Batch By Sumit Sir". Earlier only 200 seats were available for the batch but a huge number of students made a request to increase the number of seats and now we have increased the number to 250.

50 Seats Extended!!

All the students who have doubts in certain topics of this subjects, they are not even able to clear the concepts on their own and want to join coaching classes for the same. This Online Batch is specially brought up for those who are not able to join classroom programs due to certain reasons. Also, a huge number of students apply and appear for these examinations every year and that's the reason why the fight to get through these examinations is real tough. It's like shape up or ship out, so students, start off your preparations right away. And all that one needs to make the cut is a proper guidance in order to take steps in the right direction.

The online batch starts on 25th of September 2018 (Time: 10:30 P.M. - 11:30 P.M.). The classes will run on 5 weekdays (Mon-Fri)for an hour for Quantitative Aptitude Section of IBPS Clerk Prelim and Mains Examinations. There are a total of 250 seats for the batch and the candidate is required to have the minimum internet connectivity of 5MBPS to run the online classes without any interruptions. You will also be provided with IBPS Clerk Pre (10 Mocks) + Mains (10 Mocks) Online Test Series (Validity: 6 Months) and Ace Series Ebooks and Hardcopy books of Maths. The candidates can freely ask their doubts during a separate doubt session and this is why you are required to have headphones/ earphones that have a mike too. The fee that is required to be paid for the batch is Rs. 3399/-.

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Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS PO Prelims Exam: 22nd September 2018

September 22, 2018, 5:18 am

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Dear students,

Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.

Q1. The total marks obtained by a student in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics together is 120 more than the marks obtained by him in Chemistry. What is the average marks obtained by him in Physics and Mathematics together? 

40

60

120

cannot be determined

None of these

Solution: B

Q2. There are five boxes in a cargo hold. The weight of the first box is 200 kg and the weight of the second box is 20% more than the weight of the third box, whose weight is 25% more than the first box’s weight. The fourth box at 350 kg is 30% lighter than the fifth box. The difference in the average weight of the four heaviest boxes and the four lightest boxes is 

37.5 kg

51.5 kg

75 kg

112.5 kg

None of these

Solution: C

Q3. 85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many litres of each solution are there in the new mixture? 

10 lit of the first and 25 lit of the second

20 lit of the first and 15 lit of the second

15 lit of the first and 20 lit of the second

12 lit of the first and 23 lit of the second

None of these

Solution: C

Q4. If an amount of Rs. 1,50,000 is shared among A, B and C in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5, then A receives the same amount as he would receive if another sum of money is shared between A, B and C in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. The ratio of Rs. 1,50,000 to the second amount of money is 

2 : 3

3 : 2

5 : 2

5 : 3

None of these

Solution: C

Q5. Between two consecutive years my incomes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and expenses in the ratio 5 : 9. If my income in the second year is Rs. 45000 and my expenses in the first year is Rs. 25000 my total savings for the two years is 

Nil

Rs. 5000

Rs. 10000

Rs. 15000

Rs. 2500

Solution: B

Directions (6-10): The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P, Q, R, S and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of gender. Study the table and answer the questions based on it. 

Q6. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the state S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million? 

3 million

2.43 million

1.33 million

5.7 million

1.61 million

Solution: B

Q7. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then the total population of State R is : 

4.5 million

4.85 million

5.35 million

6.25 million

7.6 million

Solution: D

Q8. What will be the male population above poverty line for State P if the female population below poverty line for state P is 2.1 million? 

2.1 million

2.3 million

2.7 million

3.3 million

3.4 million

Solution: D

Q9. If the population of male below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then the total populations of states Q and T are in the ratio: 

1 : 3

2 : 5

3 : 7

4 : 9

5 : 12

Solution: B

Q10. If total population of state Q and R is 16 million and 10 million respectively then female population of state R above poverty line is what percent more than the female population of state Q below poverty line? 

84.4%

92.4%

82.4%

72.4%

88.4%

Solution: C

Directions (11-15): Find the approximate value of the following questions. 
Q11. 8599.999 ÷ 420.002 × 14.996= ? 

250

325

275

307

315

Solution: D

Q12. √2703 - √1156 + √483 =? 

50

90

40

20

30

Solution: C

Q13. 3001×749 ÷ 1001–1399= ? 

650

700

950

850

1000

Solution: D

Q14. 149.9% of 149.9+149.9= ? 

375

400

350

425

450

Solution: A

Q15.

840

920

970

780

1000

Solution: C

               

You May also like to Read:

• Quantitative Aptitude Study Notes for Bank Exams
• 100 MCQs Data Interpretation | Download Free PDF's of DI
• Quantitative Aptitude Questions for all Competitive Exams

          

   

SBI Clerk Mains Result 2018 Out: Check Here

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Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Prelims: 22nd September 2018

September 22, 2018, 3:21 am

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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Questions for IBPS PO 2018

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS PO is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: 

There are six employees A, B, C, D, E, F of a company and all of them are working on six different designation of a company viz. CMD, MD, CEO, COO, SE, JE. All the designations given are to be considered in a given order (as CMD is considered as Senior-most and JE is considered as the Junior-most). Only two persons are senior than A. Not more than two persons are between D and F. D is senior to more than one person. Two persons are between D and C. Two persons are between E and B. E is senior to A. C is not the second most junior employee. 

Q1. Who among the following is JE of the company?

C

A

B

D

F

Solution:

Q2. Who among the following is senior to C?

E

F

A

B

no one

Solution:

Q3. How many persons are junior than B?

One

Two

Three

More than three

None of these

Solution:

Q4. How many persons are senior to D?

One

Two

Three

More than three

None of these

Solution:

Q5. Who among the following is just junior than A? (a) E (b) C (c) F (d) B (e) D

E

C

F

B

D

Solution:

Directions (6-10): Following questions are based on the information given below. 
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’ 
‘P - Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’ 
‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ 
‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’ 
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’ 
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ 

Q6. In the expression A ×D ÷ F # Q × Z - M, how is Q related to D?

Granddaughter

Son in law

Daughter in law

Grandson

None of these

Solution:

Q7. In the expression A #B – M × R ÷ S, how is A related to M?

Granddaughter

Son

daughter

son in law

None of these

Solution:

Q8. Which of the following expression shows that N is son of M?

N ×S ÷ T – R × M

S ×R ÷ N – Z × M

N × T – M # Z - R

N + Q – R # Z - M

None of these

Solution:

Q9. In the expression A – D + R ÷ Y + N × Z how is R related to Z?

Brother in law

Father

Sister in law

Niece

None of these

Solution:

Q10. In which of the following expression Q is the father in law of C?

A # Q * S × R # C

Q # Y * S × A ÷ C

C - D÷ B + A *Q

D + C÷ B ÷ Q+A

None of these

Solution:

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and & used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ 
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’ 
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’ 
‘P&Q' means “P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ 
‘P *Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’ 
 Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 

Q11. Statements: T # U, L & M, U* P, M $ T 
 Conclusions: 
 I. M @ T       
II. U @ P      
III. T & P

None is true

Only I is true

Only II is true

Only III is true

none of these

Solution:

(I) M > T(false) (II) U > P(false) (III) T = P(false)

Q12. Statements: U @ G, C * D, F # U, F * D 
 Conclusions: 
 I. F @ G 
 II. D @ U 
 III. C # U

None is true

Only I is true

Only II is true

Only III is true

none of these

Solution:

(I) F > G (false) (II) D > U (false) (III) C < U (false)

Q13. Statements: S # N, Y $ H, P @ S, N & H 
 Conclusions: 
 I. N * Y 
 II. H @ S 
 III. P @ Y

None is true

Only I is true

Only II is true

Only III is true

none of these

Solution:

(I). N ≤Y (true) (II). H > S(true) (III). P > Y (false)

Q14. Statements: X * U, W # V, S $ V, S @ U 
 Conclusions: 
 I. V # U 
 II. X # S 
 III. X # V

Only II and III are true

Only III and I are true

Only I and II are true

All are true

Only II is true.

Solution:

(I) V < U (false) (II) X < S (true) (III) X < V (false)

Q15. Statements: H * L, H # F, M @ L, C $ F
 Conclusions: 
 I. F @ M 
 II. C $ L 
 III. M @ F

Only I and II are true

Only I and III are true

Only I are true

none of these

none of these

Solution:

(I) F > M(false) (II) C ≥ L (false) (III) M > F(false)

               

You may also like to read:

• Reasoning Notes for Bank Exams IBPS PO, Clerk, RRB & SBI
• Check out Best Books for RBI Grade B Phase-I and Phase-II Preparation
• Reasoning Questions for SBI PO, Clerk, IBPS & RRB Bank Exams