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Indian Bank PO Mains GA Questions: Memory Based Papers

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Dear Aspirants,


Indian Bank PO Mains Memory Based Questions:

As the Indian Bank PO Main 2018 exam is over, you all must be enthusiastically waiting for the Memory Based Question Papers. So guys, here are the most awaited GA Questions entirely based on the pattern of questions asked this year. This memory-based paper will help you analyze your mistakes and rectify them in the upcoming exams. We recommend you to go through the memory based question set of Indian Bank PO Mains 2018 and practice accordingly for upcoming IBPS PO/ Clerk Mains, Canara Bank PO, IBPS SO, Bihar State Co-operative Bank, SEBI Assistant Manager and other exams.

Current Affairs is an important section when it comes to Mains examinations. Doing Current Affairs must be a daily activity. You cannot master Current Affairs in one or two days. Make it a habit to read Current Affairs daily and revise the previous ones weekly. If you are targeting IBPS PO and Clerk this year, then prepare Current Affairs of last 6 Months at least. Leave no stone unturned in your preparations and get your names in the list of selected candidates.


Solutions will be updated by Tomorrow Morning 

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All the Very Best BA'ians for IBPS PO Mains!!
   

Current Affairs 4th and 5th November 2018: Daily GK Update

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Dear Aspirants,

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!

Current Affairs 4th and 5th November 2018: Daily GK Update

National News

1. India, Zimbabwe Sign 6 Agreements In Various Fields


i. During the visit of Vice President of India M Venkaiah Naidu, India has agreed for the deputation of experts in five fields to assist Zimbabwe. Around 6 agreements in various fields were signed in areas including Mining, Visa waiver, Broadcasting and Culture. 
ii. India will extend Line of credits of more than 350 million US Dollars to Zimbabwe for two power projects and a drinking water project. India will give about 3 million US dollar grant for upgradation of Indo-Zim Technology centre. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018:
  • President of Zimbabwe: Emmerson Mnangagwa, Capital: Harare.

      2. National Ayurveda Day: 5 November


      i. Ministry of AYUSH observes Ayurveda Day every year on Dhanawantari Jayanti (Dhanteras). 
      ii. This year Ayurveda Day is being observed on 5th November 2018. On this occasion, Ministry has organized a “National Seminar on Entrepreneurship and Business Development in Ayurveda” in association with NITI Aayog at Dr. Ambedkar International centre, Janapth, New Delhi. 


        3. 18th Indian Ocean Rim Association Council of Ministers Meeting Held in Durban


        i. The 18th Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Council of Ministers Meeting was held in Durban, South Africa.Gen.(Dr.) VK Singh (Retd.), Minister of State for External Affairs, attended the IORA Council of Ministers Meeting.
        ii. This meeting took place during the on-going celebrations of the 150th year of the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi and the 100th birth anniversary of Nelson Mandela.

        Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018: 
        • The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an inter-governmental organisation which was established on 7 March 1997.
        • IORA Headquarters in Ebene, Mauritius.

          Sports News

          4. Subhankar Dey Wins SaarLorLux Open Badminton Tournament 


          i. In Badminton, Subhankar Dey has won the SaarLorLux Open at Saarbrucken in Germany. 

          ii. In the summit clash, the unseeded Indian defeated fifth-placed Rajiv Ouseph of Britain, in straight games, in what was the first encounter between the two shuttlers.


          5. Simone Biles Sets World Record, Wins 13th World Championship Gold 


          i. Simone Biles made history by picking up her record 13th career gold medal at the world gymnastics championships in Doha, Qatar. 
          ii. Simone Biles became the first ever gymnast to win 13 world championship gold medals. She hails from the USA. 


          Banking/Business News

          6. Reliance receives India’s 1st LC Payment via Blockchain



          i. In a first for India, HSBC Holdings Plc has executed a trade finance transaction using blockchain for an export by Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) to US-based Tricon Energy. The blockchain-enabled letter of credit (LC) transaction substantially reduced the time taken for such deals.
          ii. The use of blockchain offers significant potential to reduce the timelines involved in the exchange of export documentation from the extant 7-10 days to less than a day. 


          7. RBI Allows Banks To Provide Partial Credit Enhancement of NBFC Bonds


          i. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed banks to provide partial credit enhancement (PCE) to bonds issued by systemically important non-deposit taking non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) registered with the RBI and housing finance companies (HFCs) registered with the National Housing Bank.
          ii. The move is aimed at enhancing the credit rating of the bonds and enabling these NBFCs to access funds from the bond market on better terms. 

          Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018: 
          • Urjit Patel- 24th Governor of RBI, Headquarters- Mumbai, Established on- 1st April 1935, in Kolkata. 
          • PCE, which was introduced in 2015, will help NBFCs and HFCs raise money from insurance and provident or pension funds who invest only in highly-rated instruments.

            Obituaries


            8.1971 War Hero M.P. Awati Passes Away

            i. Vice-Admiral M.P. Awati (retd.), who commanded a naval unit of the Eastern Fleet in the 1971 India-Pakistan war and whose actions led to the destruction of an enemy submarine, passed away.
            ii. Vice-Admiral Awati was 91 years old. He was the commanding officer of INS Kamorta during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War. He was awarded the Vir Chakra for his leadership and gallantry.



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            Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 5th November 2018

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            Dear Students,


            Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 5th November 2018


            Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.



            Q1. Siddharth spends 23% of an amount of money on an insurance policy, 33% on food, 19% on children’s education and 16% on recreation. He deposits the remaining amount of Rs. 504 in bank. How much amount does he spend on food and insurance policy together?
            Rs. 3200
            Rs. 3126
            Rs. 3136
            Rs. 3048
            Rs. 4045
            Solution:

            Q2. Train A, travelling at 84 kmph, overtook train B, traveling in the same direction, in 10 seconds. If train B had been traveling at twice of its original speed, then train A would have taken 22.5 seconds to overtake it. Find the length of train B, given that it is half the length of train A.
            50 m
            100 m
            200 m
            150 m
            250 m
            Solution:

            Q3. A tank contains a mixture of Dew and Sprite in the ratio of 7 : 3 and another tank contains the Dew and Sprite in the ratio of 5 : 4. In what proportion should the solution of two tanks be mixed so that in new mixture Dew and Sprite becomes in ratio 2:1.
            10 : 3
            4 : 1
            3 : 10
            3 : 1
            5: 8
            Solution:

            Q4. The ages of Vicky, Vaishali, Vijay and Vishal are in arithmetic progression, but not in order. The ratio of ages of Vicky and Vaishali is 6 : 5 and Vijay to Vishal is 7 : 8. Two years later the age of Vaishali and Vishal will be 2 : 3. Find the ratio of ages of Vicky and Vijay:
            7 : 6
            5 : 8
            6 : 7
            8 : 9
            3: 5
            Solution:

            Q5. There are two vessels A and B containing 25 litres each of pure milk and pure water respectively. 5 litres of milk from A is taken and poured into B, then 6 litres of mixture from B is taken and poured in A. What is the ratio of water from vessel A and B:
            4 : 5
            1 : 4
            5 : 4
            2 : 3
            5: 7
            Solution:

            Directions (6-10): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

            Q6. 8348.98 + 6539.98 ÷ 9.9 + 3544.98 ÷ 99.98 – 6449.9 =?
            2288
            2588
            2488
            2858
            2128
            Solution:
            ? ≃ 8349 + 654 + 35.45 – 6450
            ≃ 2588

            Q7. 
            274
            471
            174
            74
            1074
            Solution:

            Q8. 63.98% of 749.98 + 49.01% of 399.98 =10% of ?
            2640
            2880
            2480
            2840
            2740
            Solution:

            Q9. 23.98% of 259.98 + 29.98% of 709.98 – 279.89 =?
            –5
            –10
            –15
            9
            5
            Solution:

            Q10. 4649.98 ÷ 99.9 + 3749.9 ÷ 9.98 – 3659.98 ÷ 39.98 =?
            430
            303
            330
            230
            130
            Solution:
            ? ≃ 4650 ÷ 100 + 3750 ÷ 10 – 3660 ÷ 40
            ≃ 330

            Direction (11-15): Line graph shows number (in hundred) of toilet built under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Rural development plan in six different years. Read graph carefully and answer the question: 



            Q11. Total number of toilets built under Rural development plan in the years 2012, & 2014 together, what percent more than total number of toilets build under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in the years 2012 & 2016 together?
             
             
             
             
             
            Solution:

            Q12. In 2015 if 20% of total build toilet under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan were bad quality and good quality build toilet under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Rural development plan are in the ratio 3 : 5 in that year, then number of bad quality toilet build under Rural development plan in 2015.
            310
            316
            324
            328
            320
            Solution:

            Q13. Find the ratio of number of toilet build under Rural development plan in 2013 & 2016 together to number of toilet build under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in 2017 & 2015 together.
            32 : 29
            29 : 38
            38 : 29
            29 : 32
            29 : 40
            Solution:

            Q14. Find the difference between average number of toilet build under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in the years 2014 & 2016 and average number of toilet build under Rural development plan in the years 2012 & 2017?
            96
            104
            100
            108
            110
            Solution:

            Q15. Total number of build toilet under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Rural development plan in 2017, increase by what percent over Total number of build toilet under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Rural development plan in 2012?
             
             
             
             
             
            Solution:

                           







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            Reasoning Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 5th November

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            Dear Aspirants,


            Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk 

            Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS Clerk Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.

             Watch Video Solution








            Directions (1-5): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: 

            9 6 5 @ K # F 3 $ 4 O % L * B 5 M 2 G T

            Q1. How many letters are there between the elements which is 9th from both the ends?
            one
            Three
            two
            Five
            More than five

            Q2. Which among the following are the element which are eighth position from the left end and sixth position from the right end respectively?
            3G
            B3
            B4
            3B
            None of these

            Q3. How many symbols are immediately followed and preceded by numbers in the above series?
            one
            Three
            Four
            Five
            None

            Q4. How many numbers are there which are immediately followed and preceded by numbers in the above series?
            one
            Three
            Two
            Four
            None of these

            Q5. How many numbers are there which are immediately followed by symbol and immediately preceded letters?
            Two
            Three
            Four
            None
            One

            Direction (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, ©, % and # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below: 

            ‘A @ B’ means A is not greater than B 
            ‘A % B’ means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B. 
            ‘A © B’ means A is neither greater than not equal to B 
            ‘A $ B’ means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B 
            ‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B 
            In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. 

            Q6. Statements: U # N © W @ R % D 
            Conclusions: 
            I. U # W
            II. D # W
            III. N © R
            IV. U © D
            Only I is true
            Only II and III are true.
            Only I and III are true
            None is true.
            None of these
            Solution:
            I. U#W(FALSE)
            II. D#W(TRUE)
            III. N©R(TRUE)
            IV. U©D(FALSE)

            Q7. Statements: E © H, E @ L © P, B % H 
            Conclusions:
            I. B © P
            II. P $ E 
            III. H $ L 
            IV. E % B
            Only I is true.
            Only II is true.
            Only III and IV are true.
            All are true.
            None of these
            Solution:
            I. B©P(FALSE)
            II. P$E(TRUE)
            III. H$L(FALSE)
            IV. E%B(FALSE)

            Q8. Statements: M © T # J $ K % Q 
            Conclusions:
            I. T $ Q 
            II. J $ Q 
            III. T # K 
            IV. M © Q
            Only I and II are true.
            Only III are IV are true.
            Only II and III are true.
            Only I is true.
            All are true.
            Solution:
            I. T$Q(TRUE)
            II. J$Q(TRUE)
            III. T#K(FALSE)
            IV. M©Q(FALSE)

            Q9. Statements: R © D # L @ M © P 
            Conclusions:
            I. M $ R 
            II. D # P 
            III. L © P 
            IV. D % M
            Only I is true
            Only II and IV are true.
            Only III is true.
            None is true.
            All are true
            Solution:
            I. M$R(FALSE)
            II. D#P(FALSE)
            III. L©P(TRUE)
            IV. D%M(FALSE)

            Q10. Statements: W @ F $ M © D @ T 
            Conclusions:
            I. F $ D 
            II. T $ W 
            III. M © W 
            IV. T $ M
            Only I, II and III are true
            Only II and III are true.
            Only II is true.
            Only IV is true.
            All are true.
            Solution:
            I. F$D(FALSE)
            II. T$W (FALSE)
            III. M©W(FALSE)
            IV. T$M(TRUE)

            Directions (11-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow– 

            ‘S @ T’ means ‘S is father of T’
            ‘S % T’ means ‘S is son of T’
            ‘S # T’ means ‘S is wife of T’
            ‘S $ T’ means ‘S is mother of T’
            ‘S = T’ means ‘S is brother of T’

            Q11. If expression ‘I % B # L and U # C @ L’ is true then how is C related to I?
            grand-father
            nephew
            grand-son
            aunt
            son
            Solution:

            Q12. If expression ‘B $ O = W @ L % R’ is true then how is L related to B?
            grand mother
            grand daughter
            daughter
            grand father
            None of these
            Solution:

            Directions (13-15): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. 

            Among six people – A, B, C, D, E and F each of a different age, A is elder than only B. Only three people are younger than C. E is younger than F. F is not the eldest.

            Q13. Who amongst the following is the youngest?
            B
            A
            E
            C
            None of these
            Solution:
            D> F>C>E >A>B

            Q14. If E's age is 16 years, then which of the following may be B's age?
            19 years
            22 years
            18 years
            17 years
            12 years
            Solution:
            D> F>C>E >A>B

            Q15. How many people are younger than E?
            One
            Two
            Three
            Four
            More than four
            Solution:
            D> F>C>E >A>B

                           

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            BA Study Kit: 05th November 2018

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            Dear Aspirants,


            BA Study Kit: 05th November 2018


            Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.

            Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk,  RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!!

            1. All India Mock Of SBI Clerk Pre Memory-based Paper For IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam 2018 | Extended For Today!

            2. Update for All live classes on Adda247 Youtube channel

            3. IBPS SO Prelims Mock Papers Practice Book (English Printed Edition)

            4. Success Story Of Amit Kumar | SBI PO - 02

            5. Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Mains: 5th November 2018

            6. IBPS Clerk Books Kit 2018: Based On Latest Pattern (English & Hindi Medium Books)

            7. Complete Reasoning Simple to Complicated for IBPS SO/Canara Bank PO & IBPS Clerk Mains By Akanksha Ma'am

            8. IBPS RRB PO & LIC HFL Interview Capsule 2018

            9. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 5th November 2018

            10. Previous Years E-Mock Papers for IBPS PO Mains 2018

            11. English Language Quiz (Spelling Errors) for IBPS Clerk Prelims - 5th November

            12. Indian Bank PO Mains GA Questions: Memory-Based Papers

            13. Current Affairs 4th and 5th November 2018: Daily GK Update 

            14. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 5th November 2018

            15. Reasoning Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 5th November

            The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

                         
                    

            Diwali Celebration | Upto 50% Off On Video Courses | Test Series| Live Batches | Books & eBooks

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            On the auspicious occasion of Diwali, Adda247 is here with a discount offer to aid you all with best of its video courses and online classes at discounted prices, that is, up to 50% off on all the Online Classes & Video courses available on store.adda247.com. You can avail Video Courses above Rs. 1999 at 50% Off by applying the Coupon Code: DIW50, Video Courses under Rs. 1999 at 30% Off by applying the Coupon Code: DIW30, Test Series available on Adda247 Online Store at 30% Off by applying the Coupon Code: DIW30, Ebooks & Printed Edition Books at 15% Off by applying the Coupon Code: DIW15 and subscribe to Online Live Batches at 15% Off by applying the Coupon Code: DIW15.



            There are students who have doubts in some or the other subjects that will be asked in banking examinations, they are not even able to clear the concepts on their own and want to join coaching classes for the same. These online batches and Video Course are specially brought up for those who are not able to join classroom programs for some reasons. Also, a huge number of students apply and appear for these examinations every year and that's the reason why the fight to get through them is real tough. It's like shape up or ship out, so students, start off your preparations right away. And all that one needs to make the cut is a proper guidance in order to take steps in the right direction. So, get the video courses and online live batches and be ready to get through the upcoming competitive exams.

            Adda247 test series incorporate a variety of questions that simulate the level of the questions being asked in the banking and other competitive examinations these days. Not only that but the test series are prepared taking into consideration the changing pattern of the examinations, the frequently asked questions and the new pattern twisted and complex questions. The test series available on the store are for IBPS PO, IBPS SO, IBPS Clerk, Canara Bank PO, SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, SSC Translators, Stenographers, and all other important competitive examinations.

            And students, in this era of technology, E-books are the main source of information to students as they have simplified the education system by making it more convenient and affordable. As we know that online or distant education is very popular these days. It is the easiest as well as an economical option for those who don’t have enough time or any other reason for not being able to attend coaching classes.

            The Adda247 Publications provide one with a wide range of printed books for IBPS Exams, SBI Exams, RBI Exams, SSC CGL Exam, Railways Exams, CHSL Exam, etc. As so many exams are queued up to be held in the upcoming months, you must not wait in the wings and get yourself ready for them today itself.





            So, students, the time has come, it's a good time to try your luck, you should strike while the iron is hot. You still have enough time to prepare for the exams that are queued up to be held in upcoming months. Do not wait in the wings and begin today itself. Get an edge over others with Adda247 Video Courses and Online Live Batches. 

                 


            Happy Chhoti Diwali!!

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            Adda247 Family wishes you all a very Happy Chhoti Diwali!! Deepawali is a Hindu festival celebrating the homecoming of Lord Rama observed mostly in the month of October or November every year as a religious and cultural celebration among the Hindu population of the world. The significance of lighting Diyas on Diwali is reflected in the fact that the word Deepawali has itself been created from the word Deep which means a glittering lamp. Every house is decorated with vibrant and colourful lightings and flowers. Traditionally, people celebrate the festival by lighting earthen lamps with cotton wicks and candles. They also prepare a number of delicious recipes, wear traditional Indian clothes and worship Lord Ganesha and Goddess Laxmi on this day to attain good fortune and prosperity in their lives.

            The mythological significance of this festival is that people of Ayodhya celebrated the homecoming of Lord Rama who returned after 14 years of exile with his brother Laxman and wife Seeta on this day. The lighting of Diyas signifies that our beautiful mind needs to be enlightened and all the negativities like hatred, jealousy, greed, lust, and anger burn out with the same. People also celebrate this festival by lighting up the sky in various colors, most of them forgetting that these firecrackers have a detrimental effect on our environment and the humankind as well. So, we hope our students will take up the social responsibility of celebrating the festival with peace, without polluting their surroundings.

            May God bless you all with lots and lots of happiness, contentment, and prosperity in your life. Eat lots and lots of sweets, promote Green Diwali and do not forget to study or at least leaf through your notes for an hour on this opportune day. Have a lovely festive day. 

            Happy Chhoti Diwali!!

               

            IBPS SO 2018 (CRP SPL-VIII) Apply Online Now: 1590+ Vacancies

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            Dear Students, the banking industry gives enormous opportunities to the youngsters of the country and here comes a new notification by IBPS for the recruitment of Specialist Officers. The total number of vacancies for this post is 1590+. As the notification comes afresh, you all must be surrounded by a sea of question marks regarding it. So, here is the list of most frequently asked questions regarding this notification:


            ☛ What are the posts available under this recruitment project?
            A total of 6 posts are available under this recruitment project:
            1. I.T. Officer (Scale-I)
            2. Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I)
            3. Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)
            4. Law Officer (Scale I)
            5. HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I)
            6. Marketing Officer (Scale I)
            ☛ When will the registration start?
            Registration will start from 6th November 2018 and will end on 26th November 2018.

            ☛ How many vacancies are there?
            This year IBPS has released a total of 1590+ for recruitment of Specialist Officers under various posts. Following is the bifurcation of these vacancies among the 6 posts of CRP SPL-VIII:

            Sl.No.PostSCSTOBCGENTOTAL
            1.I.T. Officer (Scale-I)371154117219
            2.Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I)14644220443853
            3.Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)94183869
            4.Law Officer (Scale I)105194175
            5.HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I)154194381
            6.Marketing Officer (Scale I)392088155302

            ☛ When will the exam be conducted?
            The tentative dates for Prelims Exam are 29th and 30th December 2018
            The tentative date for Mains Exam is 27th January 2019

            ☛ Are there any changes in the Exam Pattern?
            Yes, there is a provision of sectional timing for the preliminary examination this year.

            ☛ What is the new Structure/Pattern of the exam?


            Preliminary Exam

            For the post of Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari:


            No.Name of TestsNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksMedium of ExamDuration
            1English Language5025English40 minutes
            2Reasoning5050English and Hindi40 minutes
            3General Awareness with Special Reference to Banking Industry5050English and Hindi40 minutes
            Total150125


            For the post of IT Officer, Agriculture Field Officer, HR/Personnel Officer and Marketing Officer:



            Sr. No.Name of TestsNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksMedium of ExamDuration
            1English Language5025English40 minutes
            2Reasoning5050English and Hindi40 minutes
            3Quantitative Aptitude5050English and Hindi40 minutes
            Total150125

            Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing minimum cut-off marks to be decided by IBPS. Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by IBPS depending upon requirements will be shortlisted for Online Main Examination. 


            Mains Exam

            For the post of Law Officer, IT Officer, Agriculture Field Officer, HR/Personnel Officer and Marketing Officer:


            Sr. No.Name of TestsNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksMedium of ExamDuration
            1Professional Knowledge6060English and Hindi45 minutes

            For the post of Rajbhasha Adhikari

            Sr. No.Name of TestsNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksMedium of ExamDuration
            1Professional Knowledge (Objective)4560English and Hindi30 minutes
            2Professional Knowledge (Descriptive)2English and Hindi30 minutes

            ☛ Will there be an interview after the written examination?
            Yes, as per the official notification, the candidates who have been shortlisted in the Online Main Examination for CRP SPL-VIII will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and coordinated by the Nodal Banks in each State/ UT with the help of IBPS.

            ☛ What is the age criteria to apply in this common written exam?
            A candidate's age should be minimum 20 years and maximum 30 years as on 01.11.2018.

            ☛ What is the educational qualification required for various posts in this recruitment process?

            I.T. Officer (Scale-I) :
            a) 4 year Engineering/ Technology Degree in Computer Science/ Computer Applications/ Information Technology/ Electronics/ Electronics & 
            Telecommunications/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics &
            Instrumentation
            OR
            b) Post Graduate Degree in Electronics/ Electronics & Tele Communication/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation/ Computer Science/ Information Technology/ Computer Applications
            OR
            Graduate having passed DOEACC ‘B’ level

            Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I)
            4 year Degree (graduation) in Agriculture/ Horticulture/Animal Husbandry/ Veterinary Science/ Dairy Science/ Fishery Science/ Pisciculture/ Agri. Marketing & Cooperation/ Co-operation & Banking/ Agro-Forestry/Forestry/ Agricultural Biotechnology/ Food Science/ Agriculture Business Management/ Food Technology/ Dairy Technology/ Agricultural Engineering/ Sericulture

            Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)
            Post Graduate Degree in Hindi with English as a subject at the degree (graduation) level.
            OR
            Post graduate degree in Sanskrit with English and Hindi as subjects at the degree (graduation) level.

            Law Officer (Scale I)
            A Bachelor Degree in Law (LLB) and enrolled as an advocate with Bar Council.

            HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I)
            Graduate and Two Years Full time Post Graduate degree or Two Years Full time Post Graduate diploma in Personnel Management / Industrial Relations/ HR / HRD/ Social Work / Labour Law.*

            Marketing Officer (Scale I)
            Graduate and Two Years Full time MMS (Marketing)/ Two Years Full time MBA (Marketing)/ Two Years Full time PGDBA / PGDBM/ PGPM/ PGDM with specialization in Marketing *

            * In case of dual specialisations, one of the fields of specialisation should be in the field prescribed. In case of major/ minor specialisations, major specialisation should be in the stream prescribed. Candidates having PG Degree (MMS or MBA)/PG Diploma with more than two specialisations are not eligible to apply.

            NOTE- For posts other than IT Officer Scale I: Candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.

            ☛ What is the Application Fee?
            Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates. 
            Rs. 600 /- for all others 


            ☛ I have scored 55% in Graduation/ Post-Graduation. Am I eligible to sit for the exam?
            Yes, you can apply as there is no percentage criterion.

            ☛ I am 19 years old. Can I sit for the exam?
            No, You must be at least 20 years of age and not more than 30 years of age as on as on 01.11.2018.

            ☛ How to calculate the Percentage?
            The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s)/year(s) by aggregate maximum marks (in all the subjects irrespective of honours / optional / additional optional subject, if any) multiplied by 100. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honours marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.

            ☛ Is the exam Bilingual?
            The tests except for the Test of English Language will be bilingual (English and Hindi).

            ☛ Is there a sectional cut-off in the exam?
            Yes, candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing cut off marks to be decided by the bank. The required number of candidates will be selected in order of their merit.

            ☛ Is there a criterion for negative marking?
            There is negative marking of ¼ marks for every wrong answer.

                    

            Percentage /प्रतिशतता | Basic Concept Question | Part-2 | Kamaldeep Sir

            Current Affairs Questions for IBPS PO Mains Exam: 6th November 2018

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            Dear Aspirants,


            Current Affairs Quiz for IBPS PO Mains 2018

            The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Apart from the GA Section, an excellent knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.


            Q1. During the visit of Vice President of India M Venkaiah Naidu, India has agreed for the deputation of experts in five fields to assist Zimbabwe. Who is the present President of Zimbabwe?
            Constantino Chiwenga
            Emmerson Mnangagwa
            Grace Mugabe
            Robert Mugabe
            Jonathan Moyo
            Solution:
            During the visit of Vice President of India M Venkaiah Naidu, India has agreed for the deputation of experts in five fields to assist Zimbabwe. Around 6 agreements in various fields were signed in areas including Mining, Visa waiver, Broadcasting and Culture. India will extend Line of credits of more than 350 million US Dollars to Zimbabwe for two power projects and a drinking water project. Emmerson Mnangagwa is the present President of Zimbabwe.

            Q2. National Ayurveda Day 2018 was observed on ____________.
            2nd November
            15th October
            4th November
            5th November
            25th October
            Solution:
            Ministry of AYUSH observes Ayurveda Day every year on Dhanawantari Jayanti (Dhanteras). This year Ayurveda Day is being observed on 5th November 2018.

            Q3. The 18th Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Council of Ministers Meeting 2018 was held recently in ___________.
            Shanghai
            Durban
            Beijing
            Tokyo
            New Delhi
            Solution:
            The 18th Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Council of Ministers Meeting was held in Durban, South Africa. Gen.(Dr.) VK Singh (Retd.), Minister of State for External Affairs, attended the IORA Council of Ministers Meeting.

            Q4. Name the Indian Badminton player who has won the SaarLorLux Open at Saarbrucken in Germany.
            Ajay Jayaram
            Pullela Gopichand
            Subhankar Dey
            Parupalli Kashyap
            Sameer Verma
            Solution:
            In Badminton, Subhankar Dey has won the SaarLorLux Open at Saarbrucken in Germany. In the summit clash, the unseeded Indian defeated fifth-placed Rajiv Ouseph of Britain, in straight games, in what was the first encounter between the two shuttlers.

            Q5. Name the gymnast who had recently made history by picking up her record 13th career gold medal at the world gymnastics championships in Doha, Qatar.
            Simone Biles
            Nastia Liukin
            Gabby Douglas
            Aly Raisman
            Shawn Johnson
            Solution:
            Simone Biles made history by picking up her record 13th career gold medal at the world gymnastics championships in Doha, Qatar. Simone Biles became the first ever gymnast to win 13 world championship gold medals. She hails from the USA.

            Q6. In a first for India, HSBC Holdings Plc has executed a trade finance transaction using blockchain for an export by ____________ to US-based Tricon Energy.
            Tata Steels
            Reliance Industries Ltd
            Jindal and Sons
            HDFC Bank
            Indian Government
            Solution:
            In a first for India, HSBC Holdings Plc has executed a trade finance transaction using blockchain for an export by Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) to US-based Tricon Energy. The blockchain-enabled letter of credit (LC) transaction substantially reduced the time taken for such deals.

            Q7. The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an inter-governmental organisation which was established in ____________.
            1995
            1997
            1999
            2002
            2005
            Solution:
            The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an inter-governmental organisation which was established on 7 March 1997. IORA Headquarters in Ebene, Mauritius.

            Q8. Name the Indian Navy Hero who commanded a naval unit of the Eastern Fleet in the 1971 India-Pakistan war who passed away recently.
            Admiral Anil Khuntia
            Admiral Ansan Zayas
            Vice-Admiral Krunal Sinha
            Vice-Admiral M.P. Awati
            Vice-Admiral Biswajeet Ray
            Solution:
            Vice-Admiral M.P. Awati (retd.), who commanded a naval unit of the Eastern Fleet in the 1971 India-Pakistan war and whose actions led to the destruction of an enemy submarine, passed away.

            Q9. Which of the following is the global satellite navigation system of European Union?
            BeiDou
            Galileo
            Falcon
            GLONASS
            Newton
            Solution:
            Galileo is the global satellite navigation system of European Union.

            Q10. The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) headquarters in _____________.
            Singapore
            Zimbabwe
            Switzerland
            Mauritius
            Poland
            Solution:
            The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an inter-governmental organisation which was established on 7 March 1997. IORA Headquarters in Ebene, Mauritius.

                           







            You may also like to Read:

            IBPS PO Mains GA Power Capsule | Available in English & Hindi: Download Now

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            Dear Students, Adda247 is here with this month's G.A. Power Capsule (1st July till 27th October 2018) for the upcoming banking examinations prepared by our GA whizzes Gopal Sir and team. This capsule is intended towards helping the banking aspirants throughout the country know the ins and outs of the general awareness with the help of important key points that are asked in the banking examinations.

            General Awareness, along with being an integral part of most of the banking examinations conducted by IBPS, is being asked in a number of prelims examinations as well. Now that the IBPS PO Mains, Indian Bank PO Mains, and other banking exams are queued up to be held in the upcoming months, one should make sure that her grip over this subject is strong enough to get it made.

            It's easy for one to attempt a great number of questions in this section as she doesn't need to perform complex calculations to get to the correct option. She just needs to read through the questions and keep marking the correct options provided it is prepared well enough.

            Scoring good marks in this here will not only help you qualify the sectional cut off for the section but also adds up to your overall score and thus helping you sail through the exam you will appear for. So students, get the Adda247 GK Power Capsule and bring the house down this time!!

            Download GA Power Capsule PDF for IBPS PO Mains

            Click Here to Download the Capsule in HINDI

            For any doubts or queries send an email to gopal.anand@adda247.com 

            Now you can also revise from Important Current Affairs One-Liners PDFs from May 2018 for Indian Bank Mains and IBPS PO Mains exam. Click on the links provided below to download revision PDFs:
            S.No.MonthDownload Revision PDFs
            1MAYDownload Part-1
            Download Part-2
            2JUNEDownload Part-1
            Download Part-2
            3JULYDownload Part-1
            Download Part-2


            Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Mains: 6th November 2018

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            Dear Aspirants,


            Reasoning Quiz for IBPS PO Mains: 6th November 2018


            Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS PO Mains is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.





            Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 


            When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement. 




            Input : key 17 camel 27 apple parrot 70 vicky ear 31 24 



            Step 1: 17 key camel 27 apple parrot 70 vicky ear 31 24

            Step 2: 17 31 key camel 27 apple parrot 70 vicky ear 24
            Step 3: 17 31 apple key camel 27 parrot 70 vicky ear 24
            Step 4: 17 31 apple ear key camel 27 parrot 70 vicky 24
            Step 5: 17 31 apple ear 27 key camel parrot 70 vicky 24
            Step 6:17 31 apple ear 27 camel key parrot 70 vicky 24
            Step 7: 17 31 apple ear 27 camel key parrot vicky 70 24
            Step 8: 17 31 apple ear 27 camel key parrot vicky 24 70
            And step 8 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.



            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32 




            Q1. Which step is penultimate step of above input?

            Step 7
            Step 6
            Step 5
            Step 8
            None of the Above
            Solution:
            This input output arrangement is done with the help of following some points:
            (i) Firstly, it arranges all prime number in increasing order
            (ii) After arranging all prime number in a sequence, then that word who starts with vowel arranges in ascending order of alphabetical series
            (iii)After Vowel starting word, All odd number arranges in increasing order
            (iv) After odd number, All consonant starting word arranges in alphabetical order
            (v)At last, Even number is placed in increasing order

            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 1: 71 excite don 89 queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 2: 71 89 excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 3: 71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32
            Step 4: 71 89 angst excite owl don queen fan 15 9 32
            Step 5: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 don queen fan 15 32
            Step 6: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don queen fan 32
            Step 7: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don fan queen 32

            Q2. What is the addition of 1st element from left end and 2nd element from right end in step 5?
            81
            77
            89
            78
            86
            Solution:
            This input output arrangement is done with the help of following some points:
            (i) Firstly, it arranges all prime number in increasing order
            (ii) After arranging all prime number in a sequence, then that word who starts with vowel arranges in ascending order of alphabetical series
            (iii)After Vowel starting word, All odd number arranges in increasing order
            (iv) After odd number, All consonant starting word arranges in alphabetical order
            (v)At last, Even number is placed in increasing order

            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 1: 71 excite don 89 queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 2: 71 89 excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 3: 71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32
            Step 4: 71 89 angst excite owl don queen fan 15 9 32
            Step 5: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 don queen fan 15 32
            Step 6: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don queen fan 32
            Step 7: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don fan queen 32

            Q3. Which step would be the following output? “71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32”
            Step 3
            Step 8
            Step 7
            Step 1
            None of the Above
            Solution:
            This input output arrangement is done with the help of following some points:
            (i) Firstly, it arranges all prime number in increasing order
            (ii) After arranging all prime number in a sequence, then that word who starts with vowel arranges in ascending order of alphabetical series
            (iii)After Vowel starting word, All odd number arranges in increasing order
            (iv) After odd number, All consonant starting word arranges in alphabetical order
            (v)At last, Even number is placed in increasing order

            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 1: 71 excite don 89 queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 2: 71 89 excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 3: 71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32
            Step 4: 71 89 angst excite owl don queen fan 15 9 32
            Step 5: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 don queen fan 15 32
            Step 6: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don queen fan 32
            Step 7: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don fan queen 32

            Q4. Which element is at 5th position from right end in step 4?
            don
            owl
            15
            Queen
            89
            Solution:
            This input output arrangement is done with the help of following some points:
            (i) Firstly, it arranges all prime number in increasing order
            (ii) After arranging all prime number in a sequence, then that word who starts with vowel arranges in ascending order of alphabetical series
            (iii)After Vowel starting word, All odd number arranges in increasing order
            (iv) After odd number, All consonant starting word arranges in alphabetical order
            (v)At last, Even number is placed in increasing order

            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 1: 71 excite don 89 queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 2: 71 89 excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 3: 71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32
            Step 4: 71 89 angst excite owl don queen fan 15 9 32
            Step 5: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 don queen fan 15 32
            Step 6: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don queen fan 32
            Step 7: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don fan queen 32

            Q5. Which element is at 7th position from left end in step 7?
            excite
            15
            owl
            32
            don
            Solution:
            This input output arrangement is done with the help of following some points:
            (i) Firstly, it arranges all prime number in increasing order
            (ii) After arranging all prime number in a sequence, then that word who starts with vowel arranges in ascending order of alphabetical series
            (iii)After Vowel starting word, All odd number arranges in increasing order
            (iv) After odd number, All consonant starting word arranges in alphabetical order
            (v)At last, Even number is placed in increasing order

            INPUT: excite don 89 queen 71 fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 1: 71 excite don 89 queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 2: 71 89 excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 angst 32
            Step 3: 71 89 angst excite don queen fan 15 owl 9 32
            Step 4: 71 89 angst excite owl don queen fan 15 9 32
            Step 5: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 don queen fan 15 32
            Step 6: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don queen fan 32
            Step 7: 71 89 angst excite owl 9 15 don fan queen 32

            Q6. Among only A, B, C, D, E, and F, B is the son of E and D is the son of C who is father in law of A. F is the mother of A. E’s daughter in law is F whose husband B is father in law of D. B has no son. How E is related to A?
            Father
            Mother
            Son
            Father in law
            Can’t be determined
            Solution:

            Q7.Swati walks 20 m towards east. Then She takes right again and walk 10 m. Then she turns left and walks 10 m and then turning right and walk 20 m. Then she turns right again and walk 60 m. She is in which direction from her starting point?
            North
            North-west
            East
            North-east
            South-west
            Solution:

            Q8. Prakash starts walking towards East. After walking 35 m, he turns to his right and walks another 40 m. He then turns right again and walks another 35 m. Finally, he turns right and walks 20 m. In which direction and how far is he from the starting point?
            20 m, North
            35 m, South
            35 m, North
            20 m, South
            None of these
            Solution:

            Q9. Ramesh faces North and moves 3km. Now he turns left and moves 2km, then he turns 45 degree right and moves 5 km, then again he turns 45 degree left and moved 2km. Now in which direction he is facing?
            North
            West
            South
            South east
            North east
            Solution:

            Q10. Sohan is moving 18km towards south direction and after reaching point P, he turns 90 degree anticlockwise and moves 20 km to reach point Q where he turns clockwise 135 degree and moves 2 km to reach point R. At point R, he turns 45 degree anticlockwise and moves 5 km. Now in which direction he is now with respect to P?
            South
            South- east
            South- West
            West
            North
            Solution:

            Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below- 


            Ten people are seating on two parallel rows. R, X, D, P and B are seating in row 1 and facing towards North. M, J, Z, O and G are seating in row 2 and facing south. They like different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black, Green, Orange, Magenta, Pink, Brown and Peach. They decided to go to different cities i.e. Mumbai, Guwahati, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Surat, Jaipur, Indore, Gangtok and Shimla.


            The one who likes brown sits at one of the ends. G likes Blue who faces the one who sits 2nd right of D. O does not want to go Surat. The one who wants to go to Delhi, faces the one who sits immediate right of the one who wants to go Indore and likes magenta. The one who sits at 3rd position from left end of row 1, likes Magenta. The one who likes Red faces the one who sits immediate right of R who wants to go Jaipur. B sits 3rd right of R who likes Green and wants to go Gangtok. There are two students sit between the one who likes Orange and M who wants to go Shimla. The one who likes Orange faces the one who sits immediate right of the one who wants to go Gangtok. The one who wants to go Surat, likes Black and sits diagonally opposite to P. J and G sit together but G does not face the one who likes Magenta. The one who likes Brown faces the one who wants to go chennai, who actually sit 2nd left of J. J does not want to go Indore and Mumbai. There is only one people sits between the one who wants to go to Delhi and P. The one who likes Pink sits 2nd left of the one who likes Peach. P wants to go to Hyderabad and likes brown. R does not want to go either on Mumbai or Guwahati.



            Q11. Who among the following wants to go to Delhi?

            P
            J
            X
            Z
            D
            Solution:

            Q12. Who among the following faces the one who wants to go to Indore?
            B
            O
            P
            R
            D
            Solution:

            Q13. Who among the following sits at right end of row 2?
            P
            O
            B
            Z
            D
            Solution:

            Q14. How many person sit between the one who likes Pink and the one who wants to go to Hyderabad?
            No one
            One
            Two
            Three
            Four
            Solution:

            Q15. Who among the following faces B?
            J
            O
            P
            G
            D
            Solution:

                           


            You may also like to Read:

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            How To Fill Up IBPS SO Application Form 2018

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            ibps-po-notification

            The link to register for IBPS SO Recruitment 2018 has already been activated. Some have already applied for the post while others, who are yet to apply, don't exactly know how to fill up the form. Students, if you are puzzling over how to fill in the details, stick around, we will discuss it step by step in this our video. Every time when a notification is out, we are loaded with emails seeking help regarding the mistakes made during filling up the online application forms. So, to make sure that you do not end up making those mistakes, Bankersadda is here with the fine points. Get down to the nitty-gritty and only then head towards filling up your IBPS SO 2018 Application Form.


            1. Your name, father's name, mother's name, DOB and other such crucial details should be same as mentioned in your high school mark sheet.

            2. Not just that but your details should also match the ones on your Adhar Card, Voter ID Card, Passport, etc.

            3. Double check your percentage and year of passing. They should be exactly the same as that mentioned on your mark sheets of 10th, 12th and graduation.

            4.  The percentage shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s)/year(s) by aggregate maximum marks (in all the subjects irrespective of honors / optional/additional optional subject, if any) and multiplying by 100. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honours marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.

            5. Walk a tightrope while filling up your category (General/SC/ST and others ) because you can not change the category you belong to after completion of the application process.

            6. After filling up the details, the next step is to upload an image of your thumb impression and a handwritten declaration.

            How To Upload Photo, Signature, Left Thumb Impression, And Hand Written Declaration:


            • Photograph Image: (4.5cm × 3.5cm)
            • A recent passport style color picture is to be uploaded. Make sure that it is taken against a light-colored (preferably white) background.
            • Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels (preferred)
            • Size of file should be in between 20kb–50 kb
            • The preferred dimension of Signature, left thumb impression and hand-written declaration Image is 140 x 60 pixels.
            • The applicant is required to sign on white paper with a black ink pen.
            • The left thumb impression is to be put on a white paper with black or blue ink.
            • The declaration by the candidate is to be written on a white paper with black ink in English.
            • Size of file should be in between 20kb – 50kb for signature and left thumb impression.
            • For handwritten declaration, size of the file should be 50kb – 100 kb
            • Signature / Handwritten declaration in CAPITAL LETTERS will not be accepted.

            The Text For The Handwritten Declaration


            “I, _______ (Name of the candidate), hereby declare that all the information submitted by me in the application form is correct, true and valid. I will present the supporting documents as and when required.”

            Note: The above-mentioned handwritten declaration is to be written in the candidate’s own handwriting in English Language only. It will be considered invalid otherwise.

            Upon completing the Application filling process, please SAVE A COPY of your Final Submitted Application. It will be required for further processes of this recruitment. Also, save or note down your Registration Number and Password and make sure that you have a screenshot or picture of the email that you receive post filling up the entire application form. It helps in case one loses her registration number or password.

            Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 6th November 2018

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            Dear Students,


            Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 6th November 2018


            Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.



            Directions (1-5): The following pie-chart shows the degree wise distribution of backpacks sold by various companies in the month of October, 2018 and an absolute value is also given. The table shows the percentage of different sizes of sold backpacks in which some data are missing. 

            Study the graph carefully to answer the related question. Calculate the missing data if necessary.

                          

            Note: Rest backpacks are of size 28 cm, only 3 size of backpacks are present.

            Q1. Total number of Skybags of size 28 cm is what percent more or less than the total number of Safari backpacks of same size sold in the given month. (it is given that Safari backpacks of size 28 cm are 25% of 20 cm size backpacks of same company)
            20% less
            20% more
            25% more
            25% less
            30% more
            Solution:

            Q2. What is the ratio of fastrack backpacks and HRX backpacks of size 20 cm together to the total number of Safari and Reebok backpacks together of same size. (number of Reebok backpacks of 20 cm size are 20/3% of total backpacks of all companies) ?
            221 : 200
            200 : 221
            100 : 121
            121 : 100
            99 : 200
            Solution:

            Q3. What is the difference between Skybag backpacks of size 20 cm and 28 cm together and HRX backpacks of size 20 cm and 28 cm together ? (HRX backpacks of 24 cm size are 100% more than that of 28 cm size of same company)
            4900
            5900
            9600
            6900
            7900
            Solution:

            Q4. If price of one backpack of Reebok of size 24 cm is Rs. 3200 and ratio of price of each Reebok backpacks of size 20 cm, 24 cm and 28 cm is 6 : 8 : 9 respectively, then what is the total price of 20 cm and 28 cm backpacks of same companies ? (Ratio of number of backpacks of given size 20 cm, 24 cm and 28 cm of Reebok are 5 : 4 : 1 respectively)
            2.87 crore
            18.72 crore
            1.872 crore
            can’t be determined
            0.872 crore
            Solution:

            Q5. If average number of backpacks of Skybag, Reebok and Safari of size 20 cm is 10,400 then what is the total number of backpacks of Reebok of size 20 cm sold in the given month?
            6000
            8000
            5500
            6500
            7000
            Solution:

            Q6. The daily work of 2 women is equal to that of 3 men or that of 4 children. By employing 14 women, 12 men, and 12 children a certain work can be finished in 24 days. If it is required to finish it in 14 days and as an additional labour, only women are available, how many of them will be required?
            18
            20
            48
            28
            24
            Solution:
            Hence
            2W = 3M = 4C
            ∴ (14W + 12M + 12C) = 14 + 8 + 6 = 28 Women
            Total Unit of work = 28 × 24
            ∴ 28 × 24 = x ×14
            x=48
            Total no. of women required for additional labour = 48 – 28 = 20 women

            Q7. Equal amounts of each Rs. 43,892 is lend to two persons for 3 years. One at the rate of 30% S.I. and second at the rate of 30% C.I. annually. By how much percent the C.I. is greater than the simple interest received in this 3 years duration?
            33%
            36%
            39%
            30%
            43%
            Solution:

            Q8. Mr. Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved. What is Mr. Giridhar’s monthly income?
            Rs. 6000
            Rs. 12000
            Rs. 9000
            Can't be determined
            None of these
            Solution:

            Q9. A manufacturer sells a pair of glasses to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 18%. The wholesaler sells the same to a retailer at a profit of 20%. The retailer in turn sells them to a customer for Rs. 30.09, thereby earning a profit of 25%. The cost price for the manufacturer is
            Rs. 16
            Rs. 20
            Rs. 17
            Rs. 24
            None of these
            Solution:

            Q10. HB produces very fine quality of sketching pencils. Company knows that on an average 10% of the produced pencils are always defective so are rejected before packing. Company promises to deliver 7200 pencils to its wholesaler at Rs. 10 each. It estimates the overall profit on all the manufactured pencils to be 25%. What is the manufacturing cost of each pencil?
            Rs. 6
            Rs. 7.2
            Rs. 5.6
            Rs. 8
            Rs. 9.6
            Solution:

            Direction (11-15): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 

            Q11. 
            489
            222
            456
            312
            266
            Solution:

            Q12. ? = (351.82 × 252.08) ÷ (615.52 × 36.12) × 42.19% of (39.83 × 30.23)
            3012
            2016
            1582
            4026
            4580
            Solution:
            ? = (351.82 × 252.08) ÷ (615.52 × 36.12) × 42.19% of (39.83 × 30.23)
            ? ≈ (352 × 252) ÷ (616 × 36) × 42% of (40 × 30)
            ? ≈ (16 × 11 × 2 × 7 × 6 × 6) ÷ (2 × 2 × 22 × 7 × 6 × 6) × 42% of 1200
            ? ≈ 4 × 504 ? ≈ 2016

            Q13. ? = (74.98% of 27.95% of (200.4 × 34.94)) ÷ 48.96
            30
            70
            100
            120
            150
            Solution:
            ? = (74.98% of 27.95% of (200.4 × 34.94)) ÷ 48.96
            ? ≈ (75% of 28% of (200 × 35)) ÷ 49
            ? ≈ (75% of 28% of 7000) ÷ 49
            ? ≈ (0.75 × 0.28 × 7000) ÷ 49
            ? ≈ 30

            Q14. 32.99% of 1428.07 + 93.001% of 1240 – 78.10% of 3456 = ?
            – 4460
            – 1073
            – 9460
            – 2564
            – 6562
            Solution:
            32.99% of 1428 + 93.001% of 1240 – 78.10% of 3456
            ≈ 33% of 1428 + 93% of 1240 – 78% of 3456
            ≈ 471 + 1153 – 2697
            ≈ – 1073

            Q15. 40.929% of 2197.85 + 100.01% of 8912.95 – 18.213% of 9782.15 = ?
            8043
            8053
            8163
            8253
            8063
            Solution:
            ≈ 41% of 2198 + 100% of 8913 – 18% of 9782
            ≈ 901 + 8913 – 1761
            ≈ 8053
                           





            You May also like to Read:


              

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            IBPS PO Mains Face Off 2018 | Take the Challenge & Test Your Preparation

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            With so many banking examinations queued up to be held in the days to come, you must be having your work cut out for you. The most important of all the banking exams, IBPS PO Mains too is scheduled to be held in the very month of November. And to make a go of it, one must bear it in mind that a regular practice with the mocks that simulate the real exams not only helps her attempt them with poise but ace them as well.  With Adda247 IBPS PO Mains Face Off, know where you actually stand among the thousands of IBPS PO Mains candidates who will be competing against you on 18th November. 
            What is that one strength of yours that can get you the maximum marks in the IBPS PO Mains Examination? Still wondering what needs to be given a final touch before you appear for IBPS PO Mains Examination? Wanna attempt the exact same IBPS PO Mains Examination with the exact same competitors? If yes, attempt this mock and get yourself ready to bring it off this time. The mock will be available for Rs. 25 on Adda247 Mobile App and Online Store on 9th and 10th of November 2018. Attempt the mock while the going is good.



              SBI Clerk Main Score Card Out: Check Cut Off Here

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              Dear Aspirants,

              SBI Clerk Main Score Card Out

              State Bank of India has released the Score Card or Marks of Main Exam for the post of Recruitment of Junior Associates or Clerical Cadre (Customer Support & Sales) in SBI. SBI Clerk Main Examination was conducted on 05th of August 2018. All the candidates who had appeared in this exam can check your score now.

              Check Your Score Card for SBI Clerk Main

              Sectional Cut-Off for General Category (Uttar Pradesh)


                                    

              All the Best BA'ians!!   

              English Language Quiz For IBPS PO Mains: 6th November

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              Dear Aspirants,

              english-language-quiz-for-ibps-po

              English Language Quiz For IBPS PO

              IBPS PO Prelims and Indian Bank PO Prelims exam results are out. Now the next step is to clear the Mains examination. Thus, English Language can be an impetus for your success by saving time and scoring well. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming IBPS PO Mains and Indian Bank PO Mains exam.



              Directions (1-5): Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit in the context of the paragraph. 


              (A) Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. 

              (B) It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore.
              (C) Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. 
              (D) But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. 
              (E) The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains. 
              (F) Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene.
              (G) This money will support locally led conservation efforts around the world, push for increased global targets for land and ocean protection, seek to raise public awareness about the importance of this effort, and fund scientific studies to identify the best strategies to reach our target. 



              Q1. Considering the statement (C), “Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. ” as the second statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which one among the following statements does not belong to the coherent paragraph?
              A
              B
              D
              F
              G
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement for the above sentences is FCADBE and statement G is incoherent.
              Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene. Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore. The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains.

              Q2. Considering the statement (C), “Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. ” as the second statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which one among the following pairs is consecutively related with each other?
              F-D
              C-B
              D-E
              D-B
              Both (a) and (c)
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement for the above sentences is FCADBE and statement G is incoherent.
              Hence, statement D-B is consecutively related with each other. Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene. Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore. The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains.

              Q3. Considering the statement (C), “Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. ” as the second statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, what should be the logical and meaningful sequence of the rearranged paragraph after eliminating the incoherent statement?
              FCBDAE
              DCABGF
              BCFEDG
              BCDBEA
              FCADBE
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement for the above sentences is FCADBE and statement G is incoherent.
              Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene. Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore. The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains.

              Q4. Considering the statement (C), “Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. ” as the second statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which of the following statement should be the LAST sentence after the rearrangement? (Excluding the incoherent sentence)
              B
              E
              G
              D
              A
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement for the above sentences is FCADBE and statement G is incoherent.
              Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene. Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore. The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains.

              Q5. Considering the statement (C), “Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. ” as the second statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which of the following statement should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (Excluding the incoherent sentence)
              D
              A
              B
              F
              G
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement for the above sentences is FCADBE and statement G is incoherent.
              Plant and animal species are estimated to be disappearing at a rate 1,000 times faster than they were before humans arrived on the scene. Climate change is upending natural systems across the planet. Forests, fisheries and drinking water supplies are imperiled as extractive industries chew further into the wild. But there is another, encouraging side to this depressing story: how a simple idea, born in the United States in the 19th century and now racing around the globe, may yet preserve a substantial portion of our planet in a natural state. It is the idea that wild lands and waters are best conserved not in private hands, locked behind gates, but as public national parks, wildlife refuges and marine reserves, forever open for everyone to experience and explore. The notion of holding these places in public trust was one I became deeply influenced by as a young man, when I first climbed and hiked on public lands in Colorado’s Rocky Mountains.

              Directions (6-10): Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit in the context of the paragraph. 


              (A) The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism.

              (B) Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. 
              (C) The private sector was able to make money bringing electricity to densely populated cities like New York, St. Louis and Chicago, but it took federal intervention, under the 1936 Rural Electrification Act, to bring it to rural communities across America.
              (D) That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing.
              (E) Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years.
              (F) If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.
              (G) Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it.



              Q6. Considering the statement (B), “Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom.” as the FIRST statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which of the following statement should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (Excluding the incoherent sentence)
              G
              A
              E
              D
              F
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is BGAEDF and C is incoherent here. Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it. The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism. Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years. That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing. If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

              Q7. Considering the statement (B), “Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. ” as the FIRST statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which of the following statement should be the LAST sentence after the rearrangement? (Excluding the incoherent sentence)
              F
              C
              G
              A
              D
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is BGAEDF and C is incoherent here. Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it. The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism. Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years. That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing. If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

              Q8. Considering the statement (B), “Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. ” as the FIRST statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, what should be the logical and meaningful sequence of the rearranged paragraph after eliminating the incoherent statement?
              BFACDE
              BDAFCE
              BADCEF
              BGAEDF
              BFGADC
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is BGAEDF and C is incoherent here. Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it. The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism. Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years. That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing. If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

              Q9. Considering the statement (B), “Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. ” as the FIRST statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which one among the following pairs is consecutively related with each other?
              G-E
              B-E
              E-F
              A-D
              D-F
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is BGAEDF and C is incoherent here. Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it. The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism. Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years. That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing. If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

              Q10. Considering the statement (B), “Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. ” as the FIRST statement of the paragraph after the rearrangement, which one among the following statements does not belong to the coherent paragraph?
              A
              F
              C
              D
              E
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is BGAEDF and C is incoherent here. Last week’s report from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was bad news from top to bottom. Dangerous planetary warming is underway, it’s happening faster than scientists predicted, and time is running out to stop it. The problem seems so intractable, the challenges of addressing it so monumental, as to defy solving. But the history of technology offers reasons for optimism. Major technological transformations can occur over 10 to 30 years. That’s why the time lost since 1992, when governments first signed a landmark climate treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, is so distressing. If we had set to work then, as President George H.W. Bush promised to do by taking “concrete steps” to protect ourselves from disruptive climate change, we could have transformed our energy systems by now and significantly reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

              Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 


              (A) Underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections

              (B) In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs 
              (C) In urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that 
              (D) Poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or
              (E) Employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict
              (F) Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute
              (G) Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors 



              Q11. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
              F
              D
              B
              A
              G
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is FDAGBCE. Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections. Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors. In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs in urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict.

              Q12. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
              F
              A
              G
              D
              B
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is FDAGBCE. Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections. Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors. In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs in urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict.

              Q13. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
              B
              C
              G
              E
              F
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is FDAGBCE. Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections. Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors. In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs in urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict.

              Q14. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
              D
              A
              B
              C
              F
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is FDAGBCE. Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections. Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors. In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs in urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict.

              Q15. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
              G
              B
              A
              C
              E
              Solution:
              The correct rearrangement is FDAGBCE. Though migration is expected to enhance consumption and lift families out of absolute poverty at the origin, it is not free from distress — distress due to unemployment or underemployment in agriculture, natural calamities, and input/output market imperfections. Internal migration can be driven by push and/or pull factors. In India, over the recent decades, agrarian distress (a push factor) and an increase in better-paying jobs in urban areas (a pull factor) have been drivers of internal migration. Data show that employment-seeking is the principal reason for migration in regions without conflict.

                             

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              Success Story of Mayank Jain | SBI PO - 3

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              “Start where you are,
              Use what you have, Do what you can.”

              Hello Friends !! 

              My name is Mayank Jain. I am a B.tech graduate of 2014 batch in computer science engineering. I was a mediocre student in school as well as in college days. I belong to Ghaziabad district of Uttar Pradesh.


              I have recently cleared State Bank of India (Probationary Officer) exam 2018. I am thankful to God, my parents, various tutors and many aspirants who supported me in my journey towards success.

              So, its payback time from my end by motivating all of you and also sharing the strategy and approach that I followed while preparing for bank exams. It would be very grateful if I can play even a minor role in your success story.

              It all started in September 2017.I was working for Infosys Limited as a senior software engineer. Everything was working well for me, be it incentives, appraisals, promotions or the work culture. But still I was searching for job security and stability. Since, I heard that the process for bank exams was quick (Infact it is the quickest), I decided to prepare for bank exams (SBI to be specific) because State Bank of India provides a really handsome salary. I started my preparation.

              I came across a Youtube channel i.e. Adda247. This channel and other relevant sources were the foundation stone of my success story. I started watching videos on every topic and tried to understand the concept till depth and then practice questions on adda247 application by giving various quizzes.

              I appeared for IBPS PO 2017, but couldn’t clear prelims. I was shattered. But as they say : "कोशिश करने वालों की कभी हार नहीं होती ||"

              I kept on preparing at my nominal pace.  Then, in the month of April-May 2018, SBI released vacancies for probationary officer post. After that I started preparing in full swing. I used to wake up at 5:30 am, and used to study daily GK updates from bankersadda.com. General Awareness is an important section that may turn the tables around for you, if you have really prepared well.

              I used to depart office at 9 am and used to arrive home by 7 pm. Then, I used to start the practice session by giving quizzes on adda247 app. This continued for three months. 

              English section was a piece of cake for me. Since I have studied in a convent school, so English was not a hurdle. Still I learned some of the grammar rules and practice various quizzes, just to gain confidence.

              I cleared SBI PO prelims with good score. The judgement day was approaching gradually ie 4th August 2018, SBI PO Mains day.

              15 days prior to the mains exam, I joined Adda247 Test Series. I started giving mock tests daily in the morning, and after coming home from office, I used to analyse the mistakes that I had made in those mock tests. This is the most important thing you should do, otherwise the purpose of attempting mock will not be fulfilled.

              Guys, try to maintain accuracy. Remember, Mocks will be the cornerstone of your success.There are several utmost things which all the aspirants should keep in mind while preparing:

              1. Practice daily:
              Attempt mock tests as much as you can and daily quiz uploaded on Bankersadda (Adda247) app by not just giving, but also analyze and improve.

              2. Patience:
              Patience is the key. If you are after one thing it has to be yours one day. DO NOT give up on your dreams.

              3. Believe in yourself:
              Nothing can be achieved if you don't have faith in yourself. You are no less than others.

              "No masterpiece was ever created by a lazy artist." “If Hard Work Is Your Weapon, Success Will Be Your Slave”

              "असफलता एक चुनौती है, इसे स्वीकार करो,
              क्या कमी रह गई, देखो और सुधार करो।
              जब तक न सफल हो, नींद चैन को त्यागो तुम,
              संघर्ष का मैदान छोड़ कर मत भागो तुम।
              कुछ किये बिना ही जय जय कार नहीं होती,
              कोशिश करने वालों की कभी हार नहीं होती।"

              Thank you and All the best !!

              Thanks Mayank for sharing your Success Story with us. Adda247 wishes you a good luck for the bright future ahead.


                                          
                                 

                                         Share Your Success stories at blogger@adda247.com

              Current Affairs 6th November 2018: Daily GK Update

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              Dear Aspirants,

              The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!

              Current Affairs 6th November 2018: Daily GK Update

              Agreements

              1. India and Republic of Korea Sign MoU In Field of Tourism 


              i. The Ministry of Tourism signed an MoU with the Ministry of Culture, Sports and Tourism, Government for the Republic of Korea for strengthening cooperation in the field of Tourism in New Delhi.
              ii. Mr K J Alphons, Union Tourism Minister and Mr. Do Jong-hwan Korean, Minister for Culture, Tourism and Sports, Republic of Korea signed the MoU and officials from the Ministry and their counterparts from the Korean side were also present during the signing ceremony.

                    2. India, Malawi Sign MoUs in Extradition Treaty, Atomic Energy and VISA Waiver


                    i. India and Malawi have signed three MoUs on Extradition Treaty, cooperation in the field of Atomic Energy for peaceful purposes and VISA Waiver for Diplomatic and Official Passports. 
                    ii. The MoU was signed during Vice President Venkaiah Naidu visit in Malawi. India will also extend a new Line of credit of 215 million US dollars to Malawi for 18 water projects.

                    Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018:
                    • Malawi Capital: Lilongwe, Currency: Malawian kwacha, President of Malawi: Peter Arthur Mutharika.


                      3. India, South Korea Sign MoU on Cooperation In Sports


                      i. India and South Korea signed an MoU on cooperation in sports in New Delhi. Sports Minister Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore and Minister of Culture, Sports and Tourism of South Korea Do Jong-hwan signed the MoU. 
                      ii. The objective of the MoU is to establish a framework to facilitate and promote cooperation between the two countries on the basis of reciprocity and mutual benefit.

                          National News


                          4. Delhi CM Inaugurates Signature Bridge 


                          i. Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal inaugurated Delhi's Signature Bridge, the first asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge in India. 
                          ii. The bridge was constructed by the Delhi Tourism and Transport Development Corporation (DTTDC) at an expenditure of Rs 1,518.37 crore.The 675-metre bridge aims to reduce travel time and traffic congestion between the north-eastern and northern parts of Delhi.


                          5. INS Arihant Completes 1st Deterrence Patrol 
                          i. INS Arihant, India's first nuclear ballistic missile submarine, has completed its first "deterrence patrol".
                          ii. The 6,000-tonne INS Arihant, under development for three decades under a highly classified programme, comes under the direct control of the Nuclear Command Authority headed by PM Modi. 

                          Appointments

                          6. Gafur Rakhimov Elected President of AIBA


                          i. Uzbekistan's businessman Gafur Rakhimov was elected president of the International Boxing Association (AIBA) despite fears that his appointment could lead to the sport's ejection from the Olympic Games.
                          ii. Rakhimov won 86 of the 134 second-round votes collected by AIBA officials in Moscow to beat his only opponent, former boxer Serik Konakbayev of Kazakhstan.

                          Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018:
                          • IOC President: Thomas Bach, Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland.

                          Banking News

                          7. RBI Initiates Process To Set Up Digital Public Credit Registry 
                          i. The Reserve Bank of India has initiated the process to set up a digital Public Credit Registry (PCR) to capture all the details of borrowers, including wilful defaulters and also the pending legal suits in order to check financial delinquencies.
                          ii. The public credit registry will also include data from entities like market regulator SEBI, the corporate affairs ministry, Goods and Service Tax Network and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India to enable the banks and financial institutions to get a 360-degree profile of existing and prospective borrowers on a real-time basis.

                          Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018: 
                          • Urjit Patel- 24th Governor of RBI, Headquarters- Mumbai, Established on- 1st April 1935, in Kolkata.


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                          Reasoning Quiz for IBPS Clerk Prelims: 6th November

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                          Dear Aspirants,
                          Reasoning Quiz for Indian Bank PO Mains: 2nd November 2018

                          Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk 

                          Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like IBPS Clerk Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.



                          Directions (1-2): These questions are based on the following data. There are six members in a family. F and C are not females. B is the son of C. A and C are a married couple and they have more than two children. E is the brother of C. D is the only daughter of A. 



                          Q1. How many male members are there in the family?
                          one
                          two
                          three
                          four
                          None of these
                          Solution:

                          Q2. Who is the mother of B?
                          D
                          F
                          E
                          A
                          None of these
                          Solution:

                          Q3. Pointing towards a woman , Mohan said, “She is only daughter- in-law of my paternal grandmother.” Then what is the relation of Mohan’s father with this pointed woman?
                          Husband
                          Father
                          Son
                          Brother
                          Uncle
                          Solution:

                          Q4. If Y is married to Z who is father of P. S is maternal aunt of C who is sister of P. Y has only one brother. F is the son of D whose wife is E. D is brother in law of Z. Then what is the relation of S with F?
                          Son
                          Mother
                          Aunt
                          Sister
                          Uncle
                          Solution:

                          Q5. In a class, there are 43 students. Ramesh’s rank is 17th from top and Seema is 4th rank below from Ramesh and her rank is at exactly between Ramesh and Sneha. Then what is the Sneha’s rank from bottom?
                          17
                          1
                          16
                          19
                          21
                          Solution:
                          Sneha’s rank from top= 25
                          And from bottom 43-25+1= 19

                          Directions (6–10): In each of the question, relationships between some elements are shown in the statements(s). These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer. 



                          Q6. Statements:
                          K>N ≥O, O < P, Z > K 
                          Conclusions: 
                          I. Z<O                   
                          II. P > K
                          If only conclusion I follows.
                          If only conclusion II follows.
                          If either conclusion I or II follows.
                          If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
                          If both conclusions I and II follow.
                          Solution:
                          I. Z<O (False)    
                          II. P > K(False)

                          Q7. Statements:
                          A <L ≥J < Z > C ≥ D> E 
                          Conclusions:
                          I. Z > E
                          II. J ≥ A
                          If only conclusion I follows.
                          If only conclusion II follows.
                          If either conclusion I or II follows.
                          If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
                          If both conclusions I and II follow.
                          Solution:
                          I. Z > E(True)
                          II. J ≥ A(False)

                          Q8. Statements:  
                          A < D < C < G, D<H, C>F
                          Conclusions:
                          I. F< G
                          II. H>G
                          If only conclusion I follows.
                          If only conclusion II follows.
                          If either conclusion I or II follows.
                          If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
                          If both conclusions I and II follow.
                          Solution:
                          I. F< G(True)
                          II. H>G(False)

                          Q9. Statements: 
                          S >P≥ J≥M < I, S < A, B ≥ J
                          Conclusions: 
                          I. B=M                  
                          II. M<B 
                          If only conclusion I follows.
                          If only conclusion II follows.
                          If either conclusion I or II follows.
                          If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
                          If both conclusions I and II follow.
                          Solution:
                          I. B=M(False)            
                          II. M<B (False)

                          Q10. Statements:
                          N≥Z<D < E < F ≥ G , E > X, Z>H 
                          Conclusions:
                          I. F>H
                          II. Z> H
                          If only conclusion I follows.
                          If only conclusion II follows.
                          If either conclusion I or II follows.
                          If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
                          If both conclusions I and II follow.
                          Solution:
                          I. F>H(True)
                          II. Z> H(True)

                          Q11. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says: “She is the grandmother of the son of my daughter-in-law’s mother-in-law.” How is the woman related to the man?
                          mother
                          mother-in-law
                          sister
                          wife
                          sister-in-law

                          Q12. In a class of 40 children, S’s rank is eighth from the top. T is five ranks below S. What is T’s rank from the bottom?
                          27
                          29
                          28
                          26
                          None of these
                          Solution:
                          S’s rank = 8th
                          ∴ T’s rank = 8 + 5 = 13th
                          ∴ T’s rank from the bottom = (40-13+1=) 28th

                          Directions (13-15) : These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions. 


                          1 % K $ 4 E J B €★2 H I @ L 6 Q 9 M T U F 7 D 5 # A © 8 W 




                          Q13. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number?
                          None
                          One
                          Two
                          Three
                          Four

                          Q14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
                          K41
                          ★HF
                          B★E
                          MUQ
                          A85

                          Q15. Which of the following pairs of elements does not have the second element immediately followed by the first element?
                          5#
                          MT
                          $4
                          Q6
                          @L

                                         


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