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IBPS RRB-VII Final Result 2018-19 Out: Check Final Result Here

December 31, 2018, 10:51 pm
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ibps-rrb-vii-final-result

IBPS RRB-VII Final Result Out: 

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has declared IBPS RRB-VII Result 2018-19 (list of Provisionally selected candidates under IBPS RRB-VII) for the post of Office Assistant (Multipurpose), Officer Scale-I (PO), Officer Scale-II and Officer Scale-III. Click on the link below to view IBPS RRB-VII Final Result 2018-19. We congratulate all the selected candidates for a better career ahead as a banker. 

Important Dates- 
Commencement of Result: 01st January  2019
Closure of Result: 01st February 2019




            

IBPS RRBs- VI Reserve List Out: Check IBPS RRB Reserve List 

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Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 01st January 2019

January 1, 2019, 1:01 am
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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 01st January 2019

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2019

Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 7 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.



Directions (1-6): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions: Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows such that A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in first row and facing towards South and P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated in 2nd row , facing towards North but not necessary in same order. 



Three persons sit between A and B. Two persons sit between B and D. P doesn’t sit at any of the extreme ends and doesn’t sit opposite to both B and D. Q sit third to the left of R and none of them sit at any of the extreme ends. Two persons sit between S and T. Number of person sitting between E and F is one less than the number of person sitting between Q and R. U is to the left of Q who doesn’t face B. 




Q1. Who among the following faces the one who sits immediate left of C?

S
Q
P
T
Either (a) or (d)
Solution:

Q2. Who among the following pairs sits at extreme left end?
U, E
E,S
T, F
F, U
Either (a) or (d)
Solution:

Q3. How many persons sit between P and the one who faces the one who sit third left to D?
One
Two
Three
Four
None
Solution:

Q4. Who sits opposite to C?
P
Q
T
S
Either (c) or (d)
Solution:

Q5. If U is related to D and A is related to Q, then Q is related to?
B
A
D
C
E
Solution:

Q6. Who among the following sits opposite to A?
S
Q
P
T
None of these
Solution:

Q7. “If you want a hassle-free holiday package for Country X join only our tour. Hurry up; only a few seats available.”— An advertisement of a global tourist company. If the above statement is true, which of the following has been assumed while making this statement?
Travel packages offered by other tour operators are neither cheap nor comfortable.
Most of the people desire convenience and comfort while going for a holiday.
No more seats are available with other travel agencies for a holiday in country X.
Now a days, people have a lot of money to spend on their comfort.
None of these
Solution:
Option (b) is implicit as keeping in mind people’s desire and hope of positive response, the company uses a phrase like “a hassle –free holiday package” in the advertisement.

Q8. Any young man who demands dowry for marriage, discredits himself and dishonors womanhood. Based on the above statement, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
Dowry is illegal according to the Indian Constitution.
Those who take dowry in marriages should be condemned by the society.
Those who do not take dowry in marriages respect womanhood.
Govt should make strict laws against those who take dowry to prohibit this evil.
None of these

Q9. Many school buses have fitted CNG kit without observing the safety guidelines properly. This results in some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children Which of the following can be an effective step to prevent such accident? (A) The management of all the schools should stop using buses fitted with CNG kit. (B) The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks on all the school buses fitted with CNG kits. (C) The govt should issue a notification banning school buses which run on CNG kits.
Only (A)
Only (B)
Only (C)
Only (A) and (B)
Only (B) and (C)

Q10. Statement: "Buy a variety of items from our shop and get upto 20% discount." - An advertisement. Assumptions: I. Many people will visit the shop to get the benefit of discount. II. Customers may go to some other shop if the discount is not offered. III. Offering discount is the best way to attract customers.
Only I is implicit
Only II is implicit
Only III is implicit
Only I and II are implicit
None of these
Solution:
The advertisement was given to attract the people. But this does not imply that offering discount is the best way to attract people. Therefore, only assumption I is implicit.

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions. 



In alphabetical series A-Z each letter except vowels and Z is assigned a different number from 1-10 (for ex- B is coded as 1, C-2………..M-10)and again those numbers get repeated(for ex- N-1, P-2……..so on). 

Also each vowel and Z is assigned a different symbol viz. #, $, %, @, &, *. 
For ex- 
“Remain am Brown” is coded as – 4*10@#1 @10 14$81 
“You are good” is coded as – 10$% @4* 5$$3 
“Zenith in topper” is coded as - &*1#66 #1 6$22*4 



Q11. What can be the code of ‘BHAVANI’?

16@71@#
61@71@#
1@671@#
16@17@#
None of these
Solution:
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except vowel and Z, is assigned a number from 1-10 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-9, M-10, N-1, P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5, T-6, V-7, W-8, X-9, Y-10.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, *, & So, For vowels the symbols are - A-@, E-*, I-#, O-$, U-% and Z-&.

Q12. What can be the code of ‘CHROME POST’?
264$10* 2$46
264$1* 2$56
264$10* 25$6
264$10* 2$56
None of these
Solution:
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except vowel and Z, is assigned a number from 1-10 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-9, M-10, N-1, P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5, T-6, V-7, W-8, X-9, Y-10.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, *, & So, For vowels the symbols are - A-@, E-*, I-#, O-$, U-% and Z-&.

Q13. What can be the code of ‘WIRECARD’?
8#4*24@3
8#42*@43
8#4*2@43
8#4*2#43
None of these
Solution:
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except vowel and Z, is assigned a number from 1-10 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-9, M-10, N-1, P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5, T-6, V-7, W-8, X-9, Y-10.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, *, & So, For vowels the symbols are - A-@, E-*, I-#, O-$, U-% and Z-&.

Q14. What can be the code of ‘PLASTER BOARD’?
29@56*4 1$@43
29@65*4 1$@43
29@5*64 1$@43
29@56*4 1$#43
None of these
Solution:
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except vowel and Z, is assigned a number from 1-10 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-9, M-10, N-1, P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5, T-6, V-7, W-8, X-9, Y-10.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, *, & So, For vowels the symbols are - A-@, E-*, I-#, O-$, U-% and Z-&.

Q15. What can be the code of ‘ECOFIREINSTRUCTIONS?
*2$4#4*#1564%26$#15
*2$4#4*#1564*26#$15
*2$4#4*#1654%26#$15
*2$4#4*#1563%26#$15
None of these
Solution:
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except vowel and Z, is assigned a number from 1-10 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-9, M-10, N-1, P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5, T-6, V-7, W-8, X-9, Y-10.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, *, & So, For vowels the symbols are - A-@, E-*, I-#, O-$, U-% and Z-&.

               




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Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 01st January 2019

January 1, 2019, 6:39 am
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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 01st January 2019

Reasoning Questions for NIACL AO 2019

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.



Directions (1-5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: Six students go to class on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, but one day of the week has no class. They also like different colors. E goes immediate before C, who does not likes white. The one who likes Blue, goes on Thursday. F likes black and goes on Tuesday. The one who likes in Red, goes on Monday. D goes before B but not likes white. There is three days gap between F and A. There is one day gap between the days on which the ones who like Blue and Yellow go. The one who likes Green, goes after the one who likes in Yellow. 



Q1. Which of the following color does A like?

Blue
Yellow
white
black
Red
Solution:

Q2. On which of the following days B goes to the class?
Monday
Sunday
Thursday
Friday
Tuesday
Solution:

Q3. Who among the following goes to class on Wednesday?
C
E
F
A
B
Solution:

Q4. How many students go between E and B?
Two
Three
Four
Five
one
Solution:

Q5. Which of the following day does not have any class?
Monday
Sunday
Thursday
Friday
Tuesday
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. In a certain code language, 



‘Credit rating agencies may’ is coded as ‘ we lo ij bg’ 

‘Exchange board rating agencies’ is coded as ‘ lo ui te we ‘ 
‘Exchange india agencies may’ is coded as ‘ lo ui bg tr’ 



Q6. Which of the following is the code for ‘India’?

lo
ui
tr
bg
we
Solution:

Q7. Which of the following word is coded as ‘te’?
Exchange
board
Rating
Agencies
None of these
Solution:

Q8. Which of the following is the code of ‘Agencies’?
bg
we
tr
ui
lo
Solution:

Q9. Which of the following word is coded as ‘ij’?
rating
agencies
credit
may
board
Solution:

Q10. What would be the code of ‘Exchange board india’?
ui lo te
ui we tr
te tr bg
te tr ui
None of these
Solution:

Directions (11-15): These questions are based on five words given below: 



TCS HAS ONE TWO CTS 




(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be a meaningful English word.) 




Q11. If we replace all the consonant of the each given word with the succeeding alphabet in alphabetical series, then how many words thus formed have more than one vowel?

None
One
Two
Three
None of the above
Solution:
UDT IAT OOE UXO DUT

Q12. If we replace 3rd alphabet of each word with the previous alphabet in alphabetical series, then How many words does not contain any vowels ?
One
Two
Three
Four
None of the above
Solution:
TCR HAR OND TWN CTR

Q13. How many letters lies between the 2nd letter of 2nd word from left end and 3rd letters of last word?
Eight
Seven
Three
Twelve
None of these

Q14. If we replace all the vowels of each word with 2nd succeeding alphabet of alphabetical series, then how many words contain maximum 2 consonant?
None
One
Two
Three
None of the above
Solution:
TCS HCS QNG TWQ CTS

Q15. If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order within the word, how many words will begin with a vowel?
One
Two
Three
Four
None of the above
Solution:
CST AHS ENO OTW CST

               




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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 01st January 2019

January 1, 2019, 7:38 am
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Dear Aspirants,

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 01st January 2019

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO

Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.

Directions (1-5): What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

Q1. 11,     12,     16,     25,     41,     ? ,     102
(a) 66
(b) 68
(c) 82
(d) 76
(e) 78

Q2. 7,     20,     59,     176,     ? ,     1580 
(a) 627
(b) 557
(c) 543
(d) 527
(e) 427

Q3. 78,     99,     124,     153,     186,     ?
(a) 213
(b) 217
(c) 237
(d) 227
(e) 223

Q4. 0,     26,     124,     342,     728,     ?
(a) 1221
(b) 1330
(c) 1351
(d) 1370 
(e) 1350

Q5. 18,     31,     57,     96,     148,     ?
(a) 217
(b) 227
(c) 237
(d) 223
(e) 213

Directions (6-10): Pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of total population of a state having 5 cities and the bar graph shows the percentage of female population in each city in 2017. 


Q6. If number of males in city E in 2017 is 1800 then find the male population in city A in 201 
(a) 920
(b) 1050
(c) 1200
(d) 1100
(e) 870

Q7. If total population of state was 80000 in 2017 then total population of city D was how much percent more than female population of city B.  

Q8. If total population of state in 2017 is 250000 then find the average female population of city A, C and E in 2017. 

Q9. If total population of the state in 2017 was 1 lakh and in 2018 population of city B increase by 20% and of city D increases by 10% then find the difference between total population of city B and city D in 2018.  
(a) 1500
(b) 4500
(c) 3500
(d) 6200
(e) 4000

Q10. Find the ratio of male population of city B and city D together to female population of city E and city C together.  
(a) 17 : 37 
(b) 41 : 32
(c) 23 : 11
(d) 41 : 37 
(e) 37 : 32

Directions (11 – 15): What appropriate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 



Check the Detailed Solutions Here




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2nd January 2019 | The Editorial Today | The Hindu |Editorial Discussion by VISHAL SIR

January 1, 2019, 8:29 pm
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Dear Aspirants,


The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

                                                             
        
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Time To THINK: 2nd January

January 1, 2019, 9:48 pm
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          There is only one thing that makes a dream impossible to achieve: the fear of failure



The taste of success is even more sweet when you have tasted the bitter taste of failure in life before. Life is a journey made of failures and successes. The happier you feel when you push yourself to stand on your own two feet after falling. It's important to taste failure before enjoying the sweet taste of success. 

 What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!
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Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 2nd January 2019

January 1, 2019, 8:54 pm
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Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.

1.ABSTRACT=भावात्मक
Meaning:existing purely in mind
Synonyms: complex, unreal
Antonyms: real, simple
Example:Julie had trouble understanding the appeal of the abstract painting.

2.ABYSMAL=बेहद खराब
Meaning:extremely bad
Synonyms: bad, awful
Antonyms: good
Example:I got an abysmal grade on my research paper!

3.BREVITY=संक्षिप्तता
Meaning:the quality of being breif or terse
Synonyms: short, breif
Antonyms: large, long
Example:The brevity of their time together made it all the more romantic.

4.CONCEIVE=विचार करना
Meaning:to come up with
Synonyms: accept, assume
Antonyms: neglect, avoid
Example:The plan to build the city was originally conceived in the early 1900s.

5.CULMINATION=पराकाष्ठा
Meaning:the final act
Synonyms: climax, end
Antonyms: start
Example:The culmination of the performance was unforgettable.

6. DILEMMA=संकट की स्थिति
Meaning: a problem or doubt
Synonyms: doubt, unsure
Antonyms: sure, definite
Example:The main dilemma is whether to pay for a commercial or not.

7. DILIGENCE=परिश्रम
Meaning:the quality of being commited to a task
Synonyms: dedicated, commited
Antonyms: inactivity, lethargy
Example:Diligence and confidence will get you far in life.

8. ECCENTRIC=उत्केन्द्र
Meaning:deviating from the norm
Synonyms: bizarre, curious
Antonyms: common, familiar
Example:She’s a little eccentric but still fun to be around.

9. EMPHATIC=प्रभावी
Meaning:very expressive
Synonyms: active, explicit
Antonyms: inactive, implicit
Example:Her emphatic smile told me she was excited to ride the roller coaster.

10. HOSTILE=शत्रुतापूर्ण
Meaning: harmful or dangerous
Synonyms: dangerous, violent
Antonyms: safe,  friendly

Example:The voices around the corner sounded angry, hostile even.

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IBPS RRB Clerk 2018 Final Cut Off: Check Final Cut-off Here

January 1, 2019, 10:26 pm
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Dear Aspirants,


IBPS RRB Clerk Final Cut-Off 2018

IBPS has released the Final Cut-Off for IBPS RRB Office Assistant 2018. You can check final cut off here provided below. Heartiest Congratulations to all the candidates who have sailed through IBPS RRB 2018 Exam.  Candidates who didn't make through this grueling race should not lose hope. Please focus on NIACL AO 2019 and other upcoming exams. Life is like a challenge! Accept it!

Minimum Score - IBPS RRB Office Assistant(Clerk) 2018-19 State- Wise Final Cut Off



Maximum Score - IBPS RRB Office Assistant(Clerk) 2018-19 State-Wise Final Cut Off

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IBPS RRB PO 2018 Final Cut Off: Check Final Cut-off Here

January 1, 2019, 11:40 pm
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IBPS RRB PO 2018 Final Cut Off: Check Final Cut-off Here

IBPS RRB PO Final Cut-Off 2018

IBPS has released the Final Cut-Off for IBPS RRB PO 2018. You can check final cut off here provided below. Heartiest Congratulations to all the candidates who have sailed through IBPS RRB 2018 Exam.  Candidates who didn't make through this grueling race should not lose hope. Please focus on NIACL AO 2019 and other upcoming exams. Life is like a challenge! Accept it!

Minimum Scores - Online Main Examination and Interview (out of 100)
For the Post of Officer Scale I
CRP  RRBs -VII


Minimum Scores - Online Main Examination and Interview (out of 100)
For the Post of Officer Scale I
CRP  RRBs -VII 






     

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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 2nd January 2019

January 1, 2019, 11:03 pm
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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 2nd January 2019


If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018"  with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 8 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.




Directions (1 -5): Data given below shows number of persons travel in three type of vehicles (car, bus and train) from three cities (X, Y and Z) on a particular day. 

•  32% of travelers of city X travel by car. Out of remaining 25% travel by bus and remaining by train. Number of persons who travel by car from city Y is 25% more than the persons travelling by car from city X. Ratio of no. of persons who travel by train from city X to that from city Y is 3 : 4. Total number of persons who travel form city Y is 40% more than that of city X.

•  Number of persons who travel by car from city Z is 24% of the person who travel by bus and train together from city Y. Total number of persons who travel from city Z is 62.5% of persons who travel from city X. Number of person who travel from city X by bus and train together is 472 more than no. of person who travel from city Z by bus and train together. 

Q1. What will be the minimum number of cars required so that total no. of person who travel by car from city X can travel, if maximum 4 people can sit together in a car?
128
256
384
512
640
Solution:

Q2. Find the difference between the total travellers from city Y to total travellers from city X
520
560
600
640
680
Solution:

Q3. Number of persons who travel by train from city Y is what percent more than number of persons who travel by train from city X.
Solution:

Q4. Number of person who travel by train from city Z is 20% more than number of person who travel by bus from same city. Find the number of person who travel by train from city Z.
280
336
300
360
356
Solution:

Q5. Find the average number of person who travel by car from all cities together?
460
486
512
538
564
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Calculate the approximate value of given questions: 

Q6.
6
1
7
5
4
Solution:

Q7.
187
177
167
157
147
Solution:

Q8.
18
24
28
26
14
Solution:

Q9.
20
16
24
28
30
Solution:

Q10.
20
28
32
36
24
Solution:

Q11. A hemispherical bowl of radius ‘R’ is melted to form four spheres of radius ‘r’. Find relation between their radii?
2R = r
R = 2r
R = 3r
4R = 3r
2R = 3r
Solution:

Q12.A circle is inscribed in a square. If the difference between area of the square and circle is 262.5 cm², then find the area of the rectangle whose perimeter is same as that of circle while length of rectangle is 20% more than the breadth of rectangle (in cm²)
1500
1400
700
750
3000
Solution:

Q13. 5 inlet pipes (same capacity) can fill a tank in same time in which 3 outlet pipes (same capacity) can empty it. If 2 inlet and one outlet pipe is opened for first minutes and 5 inlet and 2 outlet pipe open for 2nd minute and process continues till tank is completely filled in 30 minutes. Find the time in which 2 outlet pipe can empty the completely filled tank.
9 minute
12 minutes
6 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
Solution:

Q14. A cylinder whose height is equal to its radius is full of milk. Its milk is poured into a hemi spherical bowl of same radius as of cylinder and remaining milk is poured into another hemi-spherical bowl of same volume as of previous one. What percentage of the volume of second hemispherical bowl remained empty?
40%
66⅔%
33⅓%
50%
100%
Solution:

Q15. In a house , there is a semicircular corridor, a circular hall and a circular garden. Sum of perimeter of corridor and hall is 102 m.If radius of hall is 50% more than radius of corridor then find area of circular garden, given radius of garden is 300% more than sum of radius of corridor and radius of hall together.
6300π sq.m
5400π sq.m
5700π sq.m
4200π sq.m
4900π sq.m
Solution:

               






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Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 02nd January 2019

January 1, 2019, 11:51 pm
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Dear Aspirants,


Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2019

Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018"  with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 8 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.

Watch the Video Solutions Here




Directions (1-5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: 

Eight persons are sitting around a circular table such that four of them are facing towards the center and the rest outside. They work in different ministries i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H but not necessarily in the same order. They have their breaks in different time slots i.e. 8-9, 9-10 and 10-11. Not more than three persons have break in the same slot. The one who works in G sits opposite to the one who works in E. N sits opposite to S, who works in A. N neither works in D nor B. T is not neighbor of P. The ones who work in G, works with only the one who works in C. N sits 3rd right to Q. N faces towards the center. The immediate neighbors of S have break in same slot. Two persons sit between N and O.T, who works in E sits 3rd right to O. The one who sits opposite to M has break in the same slot as M. The one who works in E has break before the one who sits immediate right to T. Immediate neighbors of P faces center. P sits 2nd right to M and has break in 8-9 time slot. The one who works in H sits opposite to the one who works in F. Neither M nor O works in H. The one who works in E is not neighbor of the persons who work in F and B. S and T do not face same direction as O. The one who works in D has break in the time slot just after P. R does not works in A.

Q1. Who among the following works in B?
P
N
S
T
none of these
Solution:

Q2. How many persons are sitting between the one who works in D and G (in clockwise direction from the one from D)?
four
three
two
one
none of these
Solution:

Q3. Who among the following has break in last shift?
N, R
S, P
M, T
O, P
none of these
Solution:

Q4. Which of the following combination is true?
S-A-(8-9)
P- C-(10-11)
Q- E-(9-10)
M- B-(9-10)
none of these
Solution:

Q5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which among the following does not belong to the group?
Q
S
M
P
O
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: 

A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. 

Input: 10 51 18 47 26 65 61 32 
Step I: 12 51 18 47 26 61 32 63
Step II: 22 12 51 47 26 32 63 57
Step III: 34 22 12 47 32 63 57 43
Step IV: 48 34 22 12 47 57 43 31

Step IV, is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57 

Q6. Which of the following is the last step of the following Input?
34 22 12 47 32 63 57 43
32 63 57 4360 42 26 10
60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41
95 77 65 4160 42 26 10
None of these
Solution:
Logic: - Let us understand the logic behind the given machine input. Numbers arranges on the left as well as right end of each step. The lowest even number gets arranged on the left end after addition of 2 and the highest odd number is arranged on the right end after the subtraction of 2. In the second step second lowest even number is arranged at the left end after addition of 4 and second highest odd number is arranged at the right end after subtraction of 4 and so on till the last step.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57
Step I: 10 81 22 73 34 44 57 95
Step II: 26 10 73 34 44 57 95 77
Step III: 42 26 10 44 57 95 77 65
Step IV: 60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41

Q7. What will be the addition of the numbers which is forth from the right end in step II and 4th from the right end in step IV?
139
100
97
107
None of these
Solution:
Logic: - Let us understand the logic behind the given machine input. Numbers arranges on the left as well as right end of each step. The lowest even number gets arranged on the left end after addition of 2 and the highest odd number is arranged on the right end after the subtraction of 2. In the second step second lowest even number is arranged at the left end after addition of 4 and second highest odd number is arranged at the right end after subtraction of 4 and so on till the last step.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57
Step I: 10 81 22 73 34 44 57 95
Step II: 26 10 73 34 44 57 95 77
Step III: 42 26 10 44 57 95 77 65
Step IV: 60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41

Q8. Which of the following would be the difference of the numbers which is 2nd from right end in step IV and 1st from right end in Step II?
12
14
17
10
None of these
Solution:
Logic: - Let us understand the logic behind the given machine input. Numbers arranges on the left as well as right end of each step. The lowest even number gets arranged on the left end after addition of 2 and the highest odd number is arranged on the right end after the subtraction of 2. In the second step second lowest even number is arranged at the left end after addition of 4 and second highest odd number is arranged at the right end after subtraction of 4 and so on till the last step.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57
Step I: 10 81 22 73 34 44 57 95
Step II: 26 10 73 34 44 57 95 77
Step III: 42 26 10 44 57 95 77 65
Step IV: 60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41

Q9. Which of the following element will be 2nd to the left of 4th from the right end in step III?
10
26
44
57
None of these
Solution:
Logic: - Let us understand the logic behind the given machine input. Numbers arranges on the left as well as right end of each step. The lowest even number gets arranged on the left end after addition of 2 and the highest odd number is arranged on the right end after the subtraction of 2. In the second step second lowest even number is arranged at the left end after addition of 4 and second highest odd number is arranged at the right end after subtraction of 4 and so on till the last step.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57
Step I: 10 81 22 73 34 44 57 95
Step II: 26 10 73 34 44 57 95 77
Step III: 42 26 10 44 57 95 77 65
Step IV: 60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41

Q10. How many steps will be required for the following machine input-output?
6
3
5
4
None of these
Solution:
Logic: - Let us understand the logic behind the given machine input. Numbers arranges on the left as well as right end of each step. The lowest even number gets arranged on the left end after addition of 2 and the highest odd number is arranged on the right end after the subtraction of 2. In the second step second lowest even number is arranged at the left end after addition of 4 and second highest odd number is arranged at the right end after subtraction of 4 and so on till the last step.

Input: 81 8 22 73 34 97 44 57
Step I: 10 81 22 73 34 44 57 95
Step II: 26 10 73 34 44 57 95 77
Step III: 42 26 10 44 57 95 77 65
Step IV: 60 42 26 10 95 77 65 41

Directions (11-15): Answer these questions based on the following information. 

In a certain code: 
“choice question section update” is coded as - “lt mx tr ce”
“aspirant everyday update bank” is coded as - “ro iy ce nh”
“question section similar aspirant” is coded as - “mx tr qc ro”
“everyday similar update choice” is coded as – “iy qc ce lt”

Q11. What will be the code for “everyday”?
ce
ro
qc
can’t be determined
iy
Solution:

Q12. What may be the code for “choice bank monsoon”?
lt nh kl
tr nh kl
ce mx iy
either (a) or (b)
None of these
Solution:

Q13. What will be the code for “aspirant”?
mx
iy
ro
qc
tr
Solution:

Q14. What may be the code for “update software”?
ce tr
iy mx
tr ro
ce gh
None of these
Solution:

Q15. “nh” is the code for?
bank
question
section
update
None of these
Solution:

                                 

         


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Sentence Connectors for IBPS Clerk Main: 2nd January 2019

January 2, 2019, 2:01 am
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English Language Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains 

IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.


Watch Video Solutions Here







Directions (1-15): In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. 

Q1. 



A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D and A-E
None of these
Solution:
Option (b) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer.
Intrepid- fearless; adventurous (often used for rhetorical or humorous effect).
C-E can’t be true as nullifying someone’s driving license has nothing to do with someone flying abroad or anywhere. Hence option (b) is the correct answer choice.

Q2. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E and C-D
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Option (d) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer.
Servile- having or showing an excessive willingness to serve or please others
Repudiate- refuse to accept; reject None of the other given pair make any sense except C and D. Hence option (d) is the correct answer choice.

Q3. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Option (b) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer.
Though B-F is falling in the same context, but they don’t make sense grammatically. C and D are in the different context, statement C is telling about a person who met with a car accident whereas statement D is talking about car driving. Hence option (b) is the correct answer choice.

Q4. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
A-D
Solution:
Option (c) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer.
Statement A is talking about NBFCs taking risk and the other statement E is also taking about that same risk that NBFCs are taking so A-E is a correct match. Similarly, statement B is conveying that the banks are the fund providers to NBFCs, statement F is also taking about that funding link mechanism so B-F also match perfectly. Hence option (c) is the correct answer choice.

Q5. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Option (e) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer.
Statement D is talking about a person who is a founder of the blog Modeled Behavior which doesn’t connect with any other given statement.
Statement B and F are making sense together but there is no connecting word that can prove that these two statements are part of a single sentence, so match B-F can be eliminated. All other given statements are not making any match contextually.
Hence option (e) is the correct answer choice.

Q6. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-F
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Only parts A-F make a contextually correct sentence. B and D both are related to loan waivers but they contextually do not make sense together. Hence, option (b) is the correct choice.

Q7. 

A-F and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
A-F and B-D make contextually and grammatically correct sentences.

Q8. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-F and B-D
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Pairs A-F makes a contextually and grammatically correct sentence. Also, sentence B shows the rate of indebtedness and further statement D also talks about this rate. Hence, B-D form a contextually and grammatically correct sentence. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice.

Q9. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
A-F, C-E and B-D make contextually and grammatically correct sentences. A-F deals with circumstances that are out of control. B-d describes what can be done in case of incidences of natural disasters, extensive pest attack and such calamities and C-D also makes a contextually correct and meaningful sentence.

Q10. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
None of these make correct and meaningful sentences.

Q11. 

A-F and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D and B-E
None of these
Solution:
C-D and B-E make contextually and grammatically correct sentences. A-F do not make sense when connected together.

Q12. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
The pairs A-E, B-F and C-D contextually are related to each other but grammatically none of these frame grammatically correct sentences. Hence, option (e) is the correct choice.

Q13. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-D
None of these
Solution:
None of these make correct and meaningful sentences.

Q14. 

A-F, C-E and B-D
A-E
A-E and B-F
C-F and A-E
None of these
Solution:
C-F and A-E make correct and meaningful sentences.

Q15. 

A-F, B-D
A-E
B-E and C-E
C-D
None of these
Solution:
Only A-E frames a contextually correct and meaningful sentence.

               



  
    

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NABARD Development Assistant Main Score Card Out: Check Marks of Main Exam 2018

January 2, 2019, 1:19 am
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Dear Aspirants,

NABARD Development Assistant Main Score Card 

NABARD has activated the link to check the Marks of Main Online Examination for recruitment of Development Assistant. The Online Main Examination was held on 21st of October 2018. You can check your score from the link given Below. 

Important Dates- 
Commencement of Result: 27th of December 2018
Closure of Result: 26th of January 2019 



You may also like to Read:

            

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IBPS Clerk Mains High level D.I + Arithmetic By Amit Sir (Live Classes)

January 2, 2019, 2:40 am
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Dear students, as Quantitative Aptitude is an essential part of IBPS examinations. The level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, no doubt this section too can make one's blood run cold. As per the analysis of previous examinations, the questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. Data Interpretation and topics from arithmetic section make it hard for one to deal with the section as easily as any other section. But you should not forget that a mix of accuracy and a good number of attempts can definitely turn the situation round in Quantitative Aptitude Section. And to help you ace the grades in this section, Adda247 brings to you a special online batch "IBPS Clerk Mains High-level D.I + Arithmetic By Amit Sir (Live Classes)". 



This batch is for all the students who want to learn to solve DIs and Arithmetic Problems and want to join coaching classes for the same. This Online Batch is specially brought up for those who are not able to join classroom programs due to certain reasons. Also, a huge number of students apply and appear for this examinations every year and that's the reason why the fight to get through it is real tough. It's like shape up or ship out, so students, start off your preparations right away. And all that one needs to make the cut is proper guidance so she can take steps in the right direction. 

The online batch starts on 2nd Jan 2019 and the classes will run on 5 weekdays (Mon-Fri)for DI and word problems that will be asked in IBPS Clerk Mains Examination. There are a total of 130 seats for the batch and the candidate is required to have a working internet connection to run the online classes without any interruptions. The candidates can freely ask their doubts during a separate doubt session and this is why you are required to have headphones/ earphones that have a mike too. The fee that is required to be paid to join the online batch is Rs. 999/-. 

Salient Features:
1. You can get recorded videos of all the live classes after completion of every class. It will help you with revision.
2. Save your traveling and lodging cost.
3. Get classes at home in your own comfort zone.
4. Clear all your doubts one on one with faculties during live classes.
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IBPS RRB VII Reserve list 2018-19 : Check Here

January 2, 2019, 2:20 am
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Dear Aspirants,


IBPS RRB VII Reserve List

IBPS RRB VII result was released by IBPS Yesterday. Scorecard of some candidates indicated "reserve list" status. IBPS has released the IBPS RRB-VII Reserve List also. The Reserve list is subject to vacancies provided by RRBs & availability of candidates. Navigate below to check the minimum scores of IBPS RRB Reserve List 2018-19. 

Minimum Scores - Reserve List
IBPS RRB Officer Scale I


Minimum Scores - Reserve List
IBPS RRB Office Assistants (Multipurpose)



You May Also Like to Read:


            



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Practice For January 2019 Bank Exams With Adda247 Practice Material

January 2, 2019, 8:31 am
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Banking Sector has declared a huge number of vacancies of Clerks, Probationary Officers and other posts this year. It's a great opportunity for all the banking aspirants across the country to enter India's Public Sector Banks and one wouldn't like to miss it for sure. As the tentative dates for these exams fall in the month of January, one is hardly left with a month to prepare for them.

When you are pulling out all the stops to sail through a competitive examination, you cannot give a cold shoulder to objective type exam that actually catapults you to the personal interview round or a seat in the organization itself. So, did you start off with your preparations for the upcoming examinations? Not yet?

Students, don't chop and change, just make up your mind. If you think your preparation is sufficient enough to make the grades in these examinations, stop horsing around, jump on bandwagon and start practicing for them. You can be on the ball to face the upcoming Bihar Cooperative Bank, Lakshmi Vilas Bank PO and Karnataka Bank PO Exams, only if you start preparing for them right away.
  • Start preparing for the exams with sheer determination. Whenever you feel demotivated, dream about the sybaritic life lying ahead of your success, you will definitely fell motivated and work hard with full allegiance and devotion.
  • Organize all the things you want to do and fix your timetable around it. Understand the syllabus by going through previous years' papers and official guidelines.
  • Fix a day, and time, and give a test that simulates the real examination every day. Once you are used to giving such speed tests, any online examination no longer seems outlandish to you and you score fairly well.

Here is the list of practice material for Bihar Cooperative Bank, Lakshmi Vilas Bank PO and Karnataka Bank PO Exams:


Bihar State Cooperative Bank | Exam Date: 4/5-01-2019
Bihar State Cooperative Bank Assistant Manager Prelims 2018 Online Test SeriesGet it now!
Bihar State Cooperative Bank Assistant (Multipurpose) Prelims 2018 Online Test SeriesGet it now!
Lakshmi Vilas Bank | Exam Date: 20-01-2019
Lakshmi Vilas Bank PO 2019 Online Test seriesGet it now!
Karnataka Bank | Exam Date: 24-01-2019
Karnataka Bank PO 2019 Online Test SeriesGet it now!


All The Best!!


      
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DAY 7 | Practice Marathon for IBPS Clerk Mains: REVISION | Quant, Reasoning & English

January 2, 2019, 4:27 am
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Dear Readers,


Bankersadda brings to you the Revision of DAY-7 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon. In case you've missed the DAY-7 quizzes and LIVE DISCUSSIONS you still can watch the video solutions and attempt the quizzes.


Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF



Practice Marathon: Reasoning 

Topics Covered in DAY 7: Two Row Puzzle, Coding-Decoding

<>


Practice Marathon: English Language 

Topic Covered in DAY 7: Fillers






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Current Affairs 1st and 2nd January 2019: Daily GK Update

January 2, 2019, 5:04 am
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Dear Aspirants,

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!


Current-Affairs-1st-and-2nd-January-2019-2018-Daily-GK-Update


National News

1. 100% Houses in 25 States Electrified Under Saubhagya Yojana

i. The country achieved yet another milestone in the power sector with the completion of electrification in 100% households in 25 states at year end. Now, only about 10.48 lakh households are left to be electrified in 4 states - Assam, Rajasthan, Meghalaya and Chhattisgarh.
ii. These states are also taking all concerted efforts to achieve, at the earliest, saturation of household electrification. 

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • The central government launched 'Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana' (Saubhagya) in September 2017 to achieve the goal of universal household electrification in the country by 31 March, 2019.


2. Government Sets Up Export Promotion Cell For MSMEs 

i. The MSME ministry has established an export promotion cell to create a sustainable ecosystem for micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs). The ministry has also proposed to formulate a governing council that will be chaired by the secretary of the MSME ministry.
ii. The benefits likely to accrue from the setting up of the cell include integration MSMEs into global value chain, evaluation of readiness of MSMEs to export their products and services, and recognition of areas where improvements are required in order to be able to export effectively and efficiently.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • Minister of MSME: Shri Giriraj Singh (Minister of State, Independent Charge).

            3. Minister Launches 100 Ujjwala Sanitary Napkin Units in Odisha 

            i. Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister, Dharmendra Pradhan launched 'Ujjwala Sanitary Napkins' initiative saying it will go a long way in making Odisha's 2.25 crore women empowered and self-reliant.
            ii. Under the novel initiative, which will cover 93 blocks in 30 districts of Odisha, oil marketing companies (OMC) will set up 100 manufacturing units at the Common Service Centres (CSC) at an estimated cost of Rs 2.94 crore.

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
            • Odisha CM: Naveen Patnaik, Governor: Ganeshi Lal.

                International News


                4. Qatar Withdraws From OPEC 

                i. Qatar has withdrawn its membership from Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). The country had sent an official notification to the OPEC expressing its wish to pull out and to focus on its liquefied natural gas production in December.
                ii. Qatar has been in OPEC for 57 years. The decision came amid the ongoing diplomatic and economic blockade imposed on the country by its Persian Gulf neighbours and several Arab states.

                Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                • Qatar Capital: Doha, Currency: Qatari riyal.


                  5. US, Israel Quit UNESCO Citing Bias 

                  i. The United States and Israel officially quit the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) with the close of 2018. The countries had announced their decisions in 2017 of withdrawing from the agency, accusing it of bias against Israel.
                  ii. America has demanded fundamental reform in UNESCO, which was co-founded by it after World War II to foster peace. Israel joined the agency in 1949. 

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • France's Audrey Azoulay- 11th DG of UNESCO, UNESCO Headquarters- Paris, France. 

                  6. France Introduced GAFA Tax On Global Internet, Technology Firm

                  i. The finance minister of France Bruno Le Maire announced that France will introduce its own tax on large internet and technology companies from January 1.
                  ii. France has been pushing hard for a new so-called “GAFA tax” -- named after Google, Apple, Facebook and Amazon -- to ensure the global giants pay a fair share of taxes on their massive business operations in Europe.

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • Emmanuel Macron is the President of France. 
                  • He becomes the youngest President of France. 
                  • Paris is the capital city of France. 

                  Appointments

                  7. Amitabh Chaudhry Takes Charge As Axis Bank MD & CEO 

                  i. Axis Bank announced its Managing Director and CEO Shikha Sharma has retired from the post and Amitabh Chaudhry will be the new managing director and CEO of the bank with effect from January 1, 2019.
                  ii. Chaudhry, the former MD and CEO of HDFC Standard Life Insurance Company, was in September named the MD and CEO of Axis Bank for a period of three years. 

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • Axis Bank Headquarters in Mumbai. 

                  8. V K Yadav Assumes Charge of New Railway Board Chairman

                  i. Railway Board Chairman Ashwani Lohani retired, despite strong indications that the Narendra Modi government could grant him an extension.
                  ii. General Manager, South Central Railway, V K Yadav has been appointed the national transporter’s senior-most bureaucrat by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • Piyush Goyal is the Present Railways Minister of India.

                  9. Jair Bolsonaro Takes Oath As New President of Brazil

                  i. Jair Bolsonaro was sworn in as Brazil's President in a ceremony at Brazil's National Congress Building. Bolsonaro is a former Army captain and admirer of the country's 1964-1985 military dictatorship.
                  ii. Bolsonaro, 63, was a seven-term fringe congressman who rode a wave of anti-establishment anger to became Brazil's first far-right president since a military dictatorship gave way to civilian rule three decades ago.

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • Brazil Capital: Brasilia, Currency: Brazilian real. 

                  10. Justice TBN Radhakrishnan Sworn In As 1st Chief Justice of Telangana High Court

                  i. Justice Thottathil Bhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan was sworn in as the first Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court.
                  ii. The oath to the office was administered to Justice Radhakrishnan by Telangana and Andhra Pradesh Governor ESL Narasimhan at a ceremony held at Raj Bhavan. With this, the state of Telangana will have its first independent high court. 


                  Banking News

                  11. Allahabad Bank, SBI Life Join Hand For Bancassurance Partnership 

                  i. Allahabad Bank and SBI Life Insurance came together and signed a bancassurance pact, to offer a holistic financial planning solution to consumers. 
                  ii. This will empower the consumer to address their complete financial needs under one roof. The tie-up, one of the largest Bancassurance partnerships in the country, will see 3,238 branches of Allahabad Bank across the country offer SBI Life's range of protection, wealth creation, and savings products to its customers.

                  Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                  • Allahabad Bank MD and CEO: S. S. Mallikarjuna Rao, Headquarters in: Kolkata.
                  • SBI Life MD and CEO: Sanjeev Nautiya, Headquarters in: Mumbai.

                      12. Government Infused Rs 10,882 crore in 4 Public Sector Banks 

                      i. The government has infused 10,882 crore Rupees in four public sector banks, including UCO Bank and Syndicate Bank. It is a part of 28,615 crore rupees capital infusion to be done in about half a dozen public sector lenders.
                      ii. UCO Bank has received 3,074 crore rupees in the equity by way of preferential allotment yesterday. Besides, Bank of Maharashtra got 4,498 crore rupees, Syndicate Bank 1,632 crore rupees and Central Bank of India 1,678 crore rupees.


                      13. RBI Lifts Six Month Ban From Paytm Payments Bank

                      i. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed Paytm Payments Bank to restart opening new accounts for its consumers after almost six months of the ban.
                      ii. Paytm Payments Bank stopped enrolling new customers in June 2018, following an audit by the RBI, which made certain observations about the process the company follows in acquiring new customers and its adherence to know-your-customer (KYC) norms.

                      Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                      • Satish Kumar Gupta is the managing director and CEO of the Paytm Payments bank.

                      14. RBI Provides For One-Time Restructuring Of Loans To MSMEs 

                      i. Reserve Bank allowed a one-time restructuring of existing debt up to Rs 25 crore for the companies which have defaulted on payment but the loans given to them have continued to be classified as standard assets. 
                      ii. The decision will help the micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) which are facing a cash crunch in the wake of demonetization and GST implementation.

                      Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                      • RBI 25th Governor: Shaktikanta Das, Headquarters: Mumbai, Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

                      Ranks and Reports


                      15. RBI Releases The Financial Stability Report 

                      i. The Reserve Bank of India has released the 18th issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR). 
                      ii. The FSR reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) on risks to financial stability, as also the resilience of the financial system. The Report also discusses issues relating to the development and regulation of the financial sector.


                      16. CII Forecasts India’s Economy To Grow 7.5% In 2019

                      i. In its ‘Growth Outlook for 2019’, Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) stated that the GDP growth will be in the range of 7.5% in 2019.
                      ii. A settled goods and services tax (GST), improving credit availability and capacity expansion from increasing investment in infrastructure are among seven key drivers that will help Indian economy grow 7.5% 2019. 

                      Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
                      • CII President (2018-19): Mr. Rakesh Bharti Mittal, Headquarters: New Delhi.

                          Sports News

                          17. Jasprit Bumrah Becomes Highest International Wicket-Taker in 2018 

                          i. The 25-year-old fast bowler Jasprit Bumrah became the highest international wicket-taker across formats in 2018. He took a total of 78 wickets in the calendar year. 
                          ii. Bumrah surpassed South Africa's Kagiso Rabada's tally of 77 wickets to reach the milestone. While on the third position is Bumrah's countryman Kuldeep Yadav who took 76 scalps. 


                          Obituaries

                          18. Veteran Actor-Writer Kader Khan Passes Away
                          i. Veteran actor-writer Kader Khan passed away in Canada at the age of 81. Kader Khan made his acting debut in 1973 with Rajesh Khanna’s “Daag”.
                          ii. Before becoming an actor he had written dialogues for Randhir Kapoor-Jaya Bachchan’s “Jawani Diwani”. 






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                          Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 2nd January 2019

                          January 2, 2019, 6:04 am
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                          Dear Aspirants,

                          Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 2nd January 2019

                          Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO

                          Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions.



                          Directions (1-5): Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in the following questions. Note: (You are not expected to find out the exact value) 

                          Q1. 18% of 609 + 27.5% of 450 = ?
                          220
                          233
                          267
                          248
                          274
                          Solution:
                          ? = 109.62 + 123.75 = 233.37
                          ? ≈ 233

                          Q2. 8399.999 ÷ 375.002 × 14.996 = ?
                          565
                          225
                          335
                          625
                          455
                          Solution:

                          Q3. 6√2+14.275=? of 176.35
                          1/3
                          1/4
                          1/8
                          1/5
                          1/2
                          Solution:

                          Q4. 1599 × 199 ÷ 49 – 1398 + 3877 = ?
                          9400
                          9000
                          8000
                          8400
                          9200
                          Solution:

                          Q5. 40.005% of 439.998 + ?% of 650.011 = 228.5
                          8
                          17
                          12
                          20
                          5
                          Solution:

                          Directions (6-10): The following line graph shows the total no. of students of three different streams viz SSC, Bank and Railway who participated in a seminar organized by career power in five different years. 

                          The table shows the ratio of male to female in them. Study both graph and table carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

                          Q6. The total no. of male students in 2014 from all streams participating in seminar is approximately what percent of total no. of female students from all stream participating in seminar in 2013?
                          547%
                          457%
                          455%
                          452%
                          745%
                          Solution:

                          Q7. If 10% male students and 5% female students from Banking asked questions to the speaker in seminar of 2015 while 10% of total students of SSC stream in 2015 asked the question to the speaker, then total no. of student from banking who asked question is what percent of the total no. of students from SSC who asked question in year 2015?
                          90.54%
                          92.44%
                          94.44%
                          9.444%
                          98.44%
                          Solution:

                          Q8. What is the average no. of male students from Railway who participated in seminar throughout all the five years ?
                          22 thousand
                          25 thousand
                          20.5 thousand
                          21.5 thousand
                          19.5 thousand
                          Solution:

                          Q9. Total no. of male students from Banking in 2016 and 2017 together is approximately what percent more than the total no. of female students from SSC who participated in the seminar in the same years?
                          Solution:

                          Q10. In 2012 the same company i.e. career power had organized the seminar but the total no. of students in each stream i.e( Bank, SSC, and Railway) were 10%, 20% and 25% less than that of 2013 respectively and total no. of boys who participated in the seminar in year 2012 from Bank, SSC, Railway were 1000, 1500 and 2000 less than that of 2013 respectively. Find the total no. of girls participated in seminar in 2012 from all the three streams respectively.
                          6,850
                          5,670
                          7,650
                          6,750
                          7,550
                          Solution:

                          Directions (11-15): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in following number series problems? 

                          Q11. 7, 16,-2, 25, ?, 34
                          8
                          -11
                          10
                          -12
                          9
                          Solution:
                          Series is
                          +9,-18,+27,-36,+45
                          so,25 - 36 = -11

                          Q12. 6, 7, 24, ?, 882, 7947
                          12
                          20
                          64
                          81
                          125
                          Solution:
                          6×1+1, 7×3+3, 24×5+5, 125×7+7, 882×9+9
                          so,24 × 5 + 5 = 125

                          Q13. 2, 4, 16, ?, 132, 282
                          42
                          36
                          52
                          63
                          72
                          Solution:
                          Series is
                          2+(1² +1³ ),4+ (2² +2³ ),16+(3² +3³ ),52+ (4² +4³ )
                          so,16 + (3² +3³ ) = 52

                          Q14. 1, 2, 4.5, 11, 30, ?
                          93
                          72
                          78
                          84
                          90
                          Solution:
                          Series is
                          ×1+1,×1.5+1.5,×2+2,×2.5+2.5,×3+3
                          So, 30 × 3 + 3 = 93

                          Q15. 2, 7, 28, 63, ?
                          126
                          81
                          121
                          111
                          100
                          Solution:
                          Series is
                          1³ + 1, 2³ - 1, 3³ + 1, 4³ - 1, 5³ + 1
                          So, 125 + 1 = 126

                                         






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                          Sentence Improvement for NIACL AO Prelims Exam - 2nd January 2019

                          January 2, 2019, 7:09 am
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                          Dear Aspirants, 


                          English Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims 


                          NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.






                          Directions (1-15): Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence meaningfully correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No Change required” as your answer. 

                          Q1. Although he lost the first time, the politician was able to hand win this election.
                          to handily win
                          to handheld win
                          too handheld win
                          to hand won
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ’to handily win’ is grammatically and contextually correct here. Handily is an adverb and means to perform in a skillful manner.

                          Q2. Since the little girl hates getting vaccinations, her glance is riveted on the needle in the nurse’s hand.
                          glance were revited
                          glance was revite
                          glances is revited
                          glances would revited
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          No change required

                          Q3. The Congressman has made mistakes, as he him acknowledged during a televised apology last weekend.
                          as he was acknowledging
                          as he himself acknowledged
                          was he acknowledging
                          for he was acknowledging
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘as he himself acknowledged’ is correct here.

                          Q4. Even though the unemployment rate continues for abate, voters are still unhappy with the president’s economic plan.
                          rate continuing for
                          rate is continues to
                          rate was continued to
                          rate continues to
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘rate continues to’ is correct here. We use ‘to’ with the word ‘abate’.

                          Q5. Four guards is too few for the number of prisoners we are escorting.
                          was too few for
                          were too few for
                          was to few for
                          were to few for
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘were too few for’ is correct here. Here ‘too’ as an adverb will be used to compare that the guards were few in comparison to the number of prisoners.

                          Q6. Instead of buying twenty lottery tickets as usual, the man realized the buying only one ticket would shrink his chances of winning.
                          the men realized that buying
                          the man realized that buying
                          the man realizes that buying
                          the men realizes that buying
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘the man realized that buying’ is contextually and grammatically correct here. The subject is singular, so it will be man and not men.

                          Q7. The pro football team could possibly retrench and trim down their huge payroll budget.
                          will possible retrench
                          can possible retrenched
                          can possible retrench
                          shall possibly retrenched
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          No change required

                          Q8. By using an ergonomic keyboard, you can less the risk of getting carpal tunnel syndrome.
                          one will lessen to risk
                          you could less the risk
                          one can less the risk
                          you can lessen the risk
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘you can lessen the risk’ is correct here.

                          Q9. Even after spraying the air freshener, Kim could still smelled the residual odor of burnt chicken.
                          can had smell
                          could still smell
                          could till smell
                          can till smell
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘could still smell’ is grammatically and contextually suitable for the sentence. ‘could’ is already in past tense so we cannot use the verb in past tense as well.

                          Q10. Once the water reaches boiling temperature, you can turn of the stove and allow the egg to cook from the residual heat.
                          turned the stove off
                          turn of that stove
                          turn off the stove
                          turned the stove of
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘turn off the stove’ is grammatically and contextually suitable for the sentence.

                          Q11. The delaying game will be postponed until Friday or whenever the wet field finally dries up.
                          delayed gaming was
                          delayed game will
                          delaying game was
                          delay game were
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘delayed game will’ is correct here. We use ‘of’ with ‘delay’.

                          Q12. The construction workers needed to taper the pavement to reflect the two lanes that merged.
                          needs to taper
                          needs too taper
                          needed too taper
                          needed to tapered
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          No change required

                          Q13. A handful of parents showing up to the midday meeting while the rest chose to come at night.
                          showing up too the
                          showed up too the
                          showed up to the
                          shows up to the
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘showed up to the’ is correct here.

                          Q14. The police seldom cruise through them poorer neighborhoods in the city.
                          through the poorer
                          though the poorer
                          although the poorer
                          though them poor
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          ‘through the poorer’ is correct here. We will use the comparative degree in the sentence.

                          Q15. The students barely have any homework since their teacher thinks that afterschool activities are a total waste of time.
                          since those
                          for those
                          for is
                          since for
                          No change required
                          Solution:
                          No change required

                                         




                                   


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