Dear Students, as per the schedule of IBPS 2018, the main examination for the recruitment of IBPS Clerks will be conducted on 20th of January. If one gets through this phase of the examination, she will be selected as a Clerk in a Public Sector Bank of India. With only 10 days remaining for this examination to be held, you must have yourself realized the dire need of keeping your casual attitude at bay and sinking your teeth into the preparations. In these last days of your preparations, plan everything in a way that you are able to do with the syllabus and revision on time.
Students, while you prepare for this examination, you should not overlook the fact that stressing about your preparations or the examination will do no good at all. You should always follow a rule that says, "when the going gets tough, the tough get going." Your best bet at this time, when just two weeks remain for the examination, would be to make the best use of the knowledge that you have acquired through all these months of preparation.
Practice is the only key to success. It actually plays a very important role in your preparations. It can be your breakaway strategy and your true path to your very own authentic success or the lack thereof. Try focusing on full-length mocks instead of attempting the topic wise quizzes in the last few days of your preparations.
If you want to make your mark, you must test where you actually stand in the toilsome competition so you can work on the shortcomings that may cost you this government job. Challenge yourself to IBPS Clerk Mains Face Off where you get to know your point on the scale that takes in all the IBPS Clerk Candidates on it. It will also get you acquainted with some of your weaknesses that you can work on in this short space of time before the exam takes place.
Almost all IBPS Clerk candidates will be taking this mock for Bankersadda is the biggest platform for an All India Mock of a banking examination. So, don't pass up the chance to get it all right when the time is ripe. The mock simulates the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam and if you were not able to attempt it yesterday, you have an opportunity to attempt the Mock today as we are extending it for today. Mock will be available on 13th January 2019 on both Adda247 Online Store & Mobile App free of cost. Apply the coupon code FACE19 and there you go!!
NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.
Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) Global warming is caused by an acute heating of the earth’s atmosphere as a result of energy being trapped. (B) Cattle and other animals that produce methane can also contribute significantly to global warming, much of this has been a problem because of human animal farming which produces hundreds of cattle for the meat industry. (C) Greenhouse gasses such as carbon dioxide and methane can cause the atmosphere to build up, leading to solar radiation becoming trapped within the earth like within a greenhouse, hence the name. (D) Global warming is also largely a result of the release of methane from cracks in the earth, landfill sites and through natural gas leaks. (E) Once these greenhouse gasses are released, they can contribute to the buildup of the atmosphere and work to trap more solar radiation within the earth. Q1. Which is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentences after arrangement is ACEDB.
Global warming is caused by an acute heating of the earth’s atmosphere as a result of energy being trapped. Greenhouse gasses such as carbon dioxide and methane can cause the atmosphere to build up, leading to solar radiation becoming trapped within the earth like within a greenhouse, hence the name. Once these greenhouse gasses are released, they can contribute to the buildup of the atmosphere and work to trap more solar radiation within the earth. Global warming is also largely a result of the release of methane from cracks in the earth, landfill sites and through natural gas leaks. Cattle and other animals that produce methane can also contribute significantly to global warming, much of this has been a problem because of human animal farming which produces hundreds of cattle for the meat industry.
Q2. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ACEDB.
Q3. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ACEDB.
Q4. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ACEDB.
Q5. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ACEDB.
Directions (6-10): In the following questions, first and third sentences are fixed at their respective positions. Rearrange the other sentences (B), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) Deforestation means cutting down the forests that are home to the large chunks of oxygen giving trees, plants and numerous wild animals and birds. (B) In an attempt to expand the agriculture sector and meet the demands of the people, we humans are cutting the forests. (C) One of the main purposes of cutting vast forest areas is to use the land for agriculture. (D) Human beings are cutting down forests around the world for various purposes. (E) This can only be done if we have enough land for agriculture. (F) Forests are also being cut to build towns and cities to accommodate people and for setting up offices and factories. (G) With the growing population there is a need to grow more crops to satisfy the demands of the people. Q6. Which is SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
B
E
D
F
G
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Deforestation means cutting down the forests that are home to the large chunks of oxygen giving trees, plants and numerous wild animals and birds. Human beings are cutting down forests around the world for various purposes. One of the main purposes of cutting vast forest areas is to use the land for agriculture. With the growing population there is a need to grow more crops to satisfy the demands of the people. This can only be done if we have enough land for agriculture. In an attempt to expand the agriculture sector and meet the demands of the people, we humans are cutting the forests. Forests are also being cut to build towns and cities to accommodate people and for setting up offices and factor.
Q7. Which is FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
B
E
D
F
G
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Q8. Which is LAST sentence after rearrangement?
B
E
D
F
G
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Q9. Which is FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
B
E
D
F
G
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Q10. Which is SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
B
E
D
F
G
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) However, the changes that have occurred from the mid to the late 20th century are more apparent. (B) Climate change refers to a change in the global climate pattern. (C) Besides, there are several natural forces such as solar radiation, variation in the orbit and volcanic eruptions that have been influencing the climatic conditions of the Earth since centuries. (D) Our planet has witnessed changes in the climatic pattern over the centuries. (E) The level of carbon dioxide has increased exceedingly in the atmosphere and this has led to major change in the climate on the Earth. Q11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Climate change refers to a change in the global climate pattern. Our planet has witnessed changes in the climatic pattern over the centuries. However, the changes that have occurred from the mid to the late 20th century are more apparent. The level of carbon dioxide has increased exceedingly in the atmosphere and this has led to major change in the climate on the Earth. Besides, there are several natural forces such as solar radiation, variation in the orbit and volcanic eruptions that have been influencing the climatic conditions of the Earth since centuries.
Q12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Q13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Q14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Q15. Which is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
A
B
C
D
E
Solution:
The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions carefully.
Seven persons i.e. P, B, Z, D, F, I, and R are reading different novels i.e. Tom Jones, Harry Potter, Le Rouge, Madame Bovary, Le pere, Moby-Dick and Pride Prejudice, but not in same order. Also they like different Novelist i.e. Robert Black, J. K. Rowling, Kingsley, Judy, Robert Boge, Elizabeth Von, and Daisy Ashford but not in same order.
D reads Le pere novel but does not like Robert Boge. The one who reads Le Rouge, likes Daisy Ashford. B likes Judy. The one, who reads Harry Potter is F, who does not like Robert Boge and Kingsley. I likes Elizabeth Von. The one who likes Robert Boge is not R. D does not like Robert Black. Z reads Madame Bovary but does not like J. K. Rowling and Robert Black. The one who likes Robert Boge, is not Z. The one who reads Tome jones, likes Robert Boge. The one who reads Pride Prejudice is not F. B does not read Pride Prejudice.
Q1. Who among the following likes Robert Black?
I
B
Z
F
D
Solution:
Q2. Who reads Le Rouge?
R
D
P
I
Z
Solution:
Q3. Who among the following likes J.K. Rowling?
P
I
D
R
B
Solution:
Q4. The one who reads Moby-dick, is?
R
B
P
I
D
Solution:
Q5. Who among the following likes Kingsley and reads Pride prejudice respectively?
Z, P
I, F
Z, I
Z, B
D, F
Solution:
Q6. John’s house is situated in North direction from his uncle’s office at the distance of 100m.His uncle’s house is situated in west from his uncle’s office at the distance of 200m.Kabir is the friend of John, Kabir lives at 100m far in the east direction from John’s house .Kabir’s Office is in south direction from his house at the distance of 100m.How far is Uncle’s house from Kabir’s office?
200m
300m
400m
500m
none of these
Solution:
Directions (7–9): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A poll was held in a particular constituency last month. Rakesh, who is a voter of that constituency, walked 40 metres towards east from his home and took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. Finally he took a right turn and reached the polling station, which was 10 metres away from the previous point.
Q7. In which direction was the polling station located from the starting point?
South
Southeast
Northeast
Northwest
East
Solution:
Q8. What was the total distance covered by Rakesh to reach the polling station?
100m
40m
80m
60m
50m
Solution:
Q9. In which direction was the polling station located from its first turning point?
South-west
north-west
North-east
south-east
None of these
Solution:
Q10. Ravi started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8 km, he turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest distance now from his house?
10 km.
16 km.
14 km
2 km.
None of these.
Solution:
Directions (11-15): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons i.e. G, Z, B, R, O, M, D and X are living in eight storey building. Lowermost floor is numbered 1st floor and Top most floor is numbered 8th floor. They belong to different cities of India. These cities are Chennai, Pune, Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Patna, Kolkata and Goa. The one who belongs to Goa lives on odd numbered floor. There are three people between the one who belongs to Goa and G. O lives immediate below the floor on which G lives and belongs to Patna. There are two people between the one who belongs to Kanpur and O. M lives on even numbered floor but above 5th floor. There are same numbers of people living between M to D and M to Z who belongs to Chennai. X lives immediate above the floor on which Z lives. O lives on even numbered floor but below from 5th floor. The one who belongs to Goa does not live on 1st floor. The one who lives on even numbered floor belongs to Delhi, but that person is not M. R does not belong to Goa and Kolkata. The one who belongs to Lucknow lives above the floor on which G lives.
Q11. How many people live between the one who belongs to Delhi and Z?
One
Two
Three
Four
None of these
Solution:
Q12. Who among the following lives immediate below the one who belongs to Patna?
R
B
D
Z
X
Solution:
Q13. Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?
D
X
G
R
O
Solution:
Q14. How many people live above the floor on which the one who belongs to Kanpur lives?
With the increased competition in the field of banking examinations, it has now become very important to cover up all the sections efficiently. One subject that can help you bagging graceful marks in the minimum time in these examinations is Banking Awareness. Banking Awareness Quiz not only helps you deal with the General Awareness Section of Banking Exams but also, the Personal Interview round of Banking Recruitment.
Q1. The government has constituted a seven-member panel to select managing directors of public sector insurance companies. The panel would be headed by Banks Board Bureau (BBB) chairman ____________.
BP Sharma
KM Kamtah
Sunol Kanoongo
KP Shukla
Rati Nath Narayan
Solution:
The government has constituted a seven-member panel to select managing directors of public sector insurance companies. The panel would be headed by Banks Board Bureau (BBB) chairman BP Sharma.
Q2. Name the company that has recently announced a partnership with the Federation of Indian Micro and Small and Medium Enterprises(FISME) to empower Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
Amazon India
Flipkart
Myntra
Ebay
Ola Cabs
Solution:
In line with its vision of transforming the way India buys and sells, Amazon India announced a partnership with the Federation of Indian Micro and Small and Medium Enterprises(FISME) to empower Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to leverage growth opportunities in the e-commerce sector.
Q3. Which of the following organization launched the upgraded portal of the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP)?
NITI Aayog
Ministry of Women and Child Development
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Ministry of Rural Development
Solution:
The NITI Aayog organised the 3rd Edition of the Women Transforming India Awards 2018 and launched the upgraded portal of the Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP).
Q4. India announced a $1.4 billion package for which of the following country to meet its immediate budgetary as well as some medium-term requirements?
Sri Lanka
Nepal
Bangladesh
Pakistan
Maldives
Solution:
India announced a $1.4 billion package for the Maldives to meet its immediate budgetary as well as some medium-term requirements. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the package that includes soft loans after talks with visiting Maldives President Ibrahim Solih in New Delhi.
Q5. Who among the following has been elected as the Vice President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) for 2018-19?
Uday Shankar
Karuna Nundy
Mukul Rohatgi
Madan Lokur
KT Shankar
Solution:
Star India’s Chairman and CEO Uday Shankar has been elected Vice President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) for 2018-19.
Q6. Under AFCSS, announced by Assam government, whatever amount of loan the farmers took from banks and whatever amount they repaid, _______of the money will be reimbursed by the state government.
60%
33%
75%
50%
25%
Solution:
Under Assam Farmers’ Credit Subsidy Scheme (AFCSS), whatever amount of loan the farmers took from banks and whatever amount they repaid, 25% of the money will be reimbursed by the state government.
Q7. Who has been appointed as chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), the apex policy-making body for indirect taxes?
Nripendra Misra
Pranab Kumar Das
Snehlata Shrivastava
Hasmukh Adhia
Pramod Kumar Misra
Solution:
Senior bureaucrat Pranab Kumar Das has been appointed as chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), the apex policy-making body for indirect taxes. Das, special secretary and member (customs) at CBIC, was succeed S Ramesh.
Q8. IDFC Bank and non-banking financial company (NBFC) Capital First has announced the completion of their merger. The merged entity to be called as_______.
IDFC First Bank
IDFC Capital Bank
Capital IDFC Bank
IDFC- NBFC Bank
IDFC- Index Bank
Solution:
IDFC Bank and non-banking financial company (NBFC) Capital First has announced the completion of their merger, creating a combined loan asset book of Rs 1.03 lakh crore for the merged entity IDFC First Bank. The merged entity to be called IDFC First Bank, subject to shareholders’ approval.
Q9. Karnataka Bank announced a strategic partnership with __________ to offer the bank’s home loan product to customers on its platform.
Bankbazaar.com
LIC India
Policybazaar.com
Paisabazaar.com
None of the above option is the right answer
Solution:
Paisabazaar.com, India’s largest online marketplace for financial products, and Karnataka Bank announced a strategic partnership to offer the bank’s home loan product to customers on the Paisabazaar platform.
Q10. At what % of GDP at current market prices, the Reserve Bank of India, in consultation with the government, has decided to have a rule-based dynamic limit for outstanding stock of External Commercial Borrowings (ECB)?
7.5%
6.5%
3.3%
4.5%
10%
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India, in consultation with the government, has decided to have a rule-based dynamic limit for outstanding stock of External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) at 6.5% of GDP at current market prices.
Q11. The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the “Asiatic Lion Conservation Project” to protect and conserve the population of Asiatic Lion and its associated ecosystem. What is the total budget of the project for 3 years?
Rs 85.75 Crore
Rs 110.10 Crore
Rs 90.15 Crore
Rs 121.65 Crore
Rs 97.84 Crore
Solution:
The Asiatic Lion Conservation Project is aimed at the conservation and recovery of Asiatic Lion with the help of up to date techniques, instruments, regular scientific research studies, disease management, modern surveillance and patrolling techniques. The total budget of the project for 3 years amounts to around Rs 9784 lakh (97.84 Crore).
Q12. The government has decided to infuse an additional outlay to cash-starved public sector banks (PSBs). What is the additional amount decided by the government?
Rs 61,000 crore
Rs 41,000 crore
Rs 100,000 crore
Rs 33,000 crore
Rs 53,000 crore
Solution:
The government will infuse an additional Rs 41,000 crore into cash-starved public sector banks (PSBs). The outlay will go up from Rs. 65,000 crore to Rs. 1,06,000 crore in the current financial year to propel economic growth, cementing India’s position as the fastest growing economy of the world.
Q13. Which of the following bank was conferred with SKOCH Award in ‘Banking and Finance (B&F) Silver Category’?
J&K Bank
UCO Bank
State Bank of India
IndusInd Bank
HDFC Bank
Solution:
Commerce and Industry Minister Suresh Prabhu has conferred the Skoch Golden Jubilee Challenger Award at the 55th Skoch Summit in New Delhi. J&K Bank was conferred with SKOCH Award in ‘Banking and Finance (B&F) Silver Category’.
Q14. Prime Minister Narendra Modi releases a ______rupees commemorative coin in honour of former Prime Minister and Bharat Ratna Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
1000
100
75
50
150
Solution:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi releases a 100 rupees commemorative coin in honour of former Prime Minister and Bharat Ratna Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s birth anniversary, which falls on 25th December, is celebrated as ‘Good Governance Day’.
Q15. The Reserve Bank of India has shortlisted six major IT companies, including TCS, Wipro and IBM India, to set up a wide-based DPCR. What does C stands for in DPCR?
Clearing
Corporate
Corporation
Credit
Cheque
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India has shortlisted six major IT companies, including TCS, Wipro and IBM India, to set up a wide-based digital Public Credit Registry (PCR) for capturing details of all borrowers and wilful defaulters.
Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.
Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk, RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!
Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO
The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. Most of the questions in GA appear from Current Affairs section. So it becomes important for you all to cover this particular section with sincerity and seriousness. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.
Q1. India has allowed an Iranian bank to open a branch in Mumbai. Name that bank.
Pasargad Bank
Parsian Bank
Tejarat Bank
Export Development Bank of Iran
Maskan Bank
Solution:
Union Minister Nitin Gadkari has announced that India has allowed an Iranian bank, Pasargad Bank, to open a branch in Mumbai. The move is aimed at circumventing US trade and investment sanctions as India builds a strategic port in the West Asian country. Alongside, India’s UCO Bank will open a branch in Iran.
Q2. SEBI has constituted a “Research Advisory” committee which will assist in formulating policy to undertake research relevant for development and regulation of capital markets. It will be headed by ______.
C. Rangarajan
Y. B. Damle
Viral Acharya
H R Khan
Sankar De
Solution:
Market regulator Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has constituted a “Research Advisory” committee which will assist in formulating policy to undertake research relevant for development and regulation of capital markets. According to SEBI, the committee would comprise prominent financial economists and market practitioners. It will be headed by Sankar De.
Q3. UGC has constituted a Committee under the Chairmanship of _________ to review its quality mandate relating to promotion of Research and to review the existing M.Phil/ Ph.D Regulations.
T.N.A. Iyer
P. Balram
K.S. Shere
W. S. Saraf
A. Ghosh
Solution:
UGC has constituted a Committee under the Chairmanship of Prof. P. Balram, to review its quality mandate relating to promotion of Research and to review the existing M.Phil/ Ph.D Regulations.
Q4. World Hindi Day is celebrated every year on_________.
11 January
12 September
14 September
10 January
12 January
Solution:
World Hindi Day is celebrated on January 10 every year, marking the anniversary of first World Hindi Conference which was held in 1975. National Hindi Diwas is celebrated every year on September 14.
Q5. The Polavaram project of ___________ entered the Guinness Book of World by pouring 32,100 cubic meters of concrete in a matter of 24 hours.
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Telangana
Tamil Nadu
Karnataka
Solution:
The Polavaram project of Andhra Pradesh entered the Guinness Book of World by pouring 32,100 cubic meters of concrete in a matter of 24 hours. While the staff of Navayuga Engineering company performed the task, project, and state government officials remained at the site until the goal was completed.
Q6. Who among the following has been named as the 2018 Confederation of African Football Player of the Year?
Kalidou Koulibaly
Didier Drogba
George Weah
Mohamed Salah
Abedi Pele
Solution:
Liverpool’s Mohamed Salah has been named as the 2018 Confederation of African Football Player of the Year. For the second consecutive year he has won the award.
Q7. IRCTC, the Railways’ subsidiary, will offer insurance of up to INR ______ for free for air passengers who book their tickets through its portal.
25 lakh
10 lakh
50 lakh
5 lakh
35 lakh
Solution:
Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC), the Railways’ subsidiary, will offer insurance of up to INR50 lakh for free for air passengers who book their tickets through its portal. IRCTC has tied up with Bharti-Axa for the offer.
Q8. World Economic Forum stated that India is set to become the world’s _______largest consumer market by 2030.
2nd
4th
5th
6th
3rd
Solution:
A report by World Economic Forum stated that India is set to become the world’s third largest consumer market behind only USA and China by 2030. The report was titled as ‘Future of Consumption in Fast-Growth Consumer Market – India’.
Q9. Sri Lanka’s Central Bank announced that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has agreed to provide ________ under a swap arrangement to boost the island nation’s reserves.
USD 400 million
USD 100 million
USD 200 million
USD 300 million
USD 250 million
Solution:
Sri Lanka’s Central Bank announced that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has agreed to provide USD 400 million under a swap arrangement to boost the island nation’s reserves.
Q10. Which part of the country will soon be connected by seaplanes that can land on or take-off from the water?
Daman and Diu
Visakhapatnam
Kochi
Lakshadweep
Andaman
Solution:
According to the Ministry of Civil Aviation, islands in Andaman will soon be connected by seaplanes that can land on or take-off from the water. To facilitate the same, the government has approved flight operations on 13 water aerodrome routes under the Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) scheme.
Q11. What is the name of the Campaign, government has launched to celebrate the exceptional achievements of women who have influenced and impacted society through social media?
Wonderful Women Beings
Web Wonder Women
Amazing Web Women
Social Nari
internet and Woman
Solution:
The government launched Web-Wonder Women Campaign to celebrate the exceptional achievements of women who have influenced and impacted society through social media.
Q12. Who is the author of the book titled 'We Are Displaced'?
Malala Yousafzai
Salman Rushdie
Shashi Tharoor
Mansi Gulati
Rima Hooja
Solution:
Nobel Peace Prize winner and Pakistani activist Malala Yousafzai pens a new book, titled ‘We Are Displaced: My Journey and Stories from Refugee Girls Around the World,’ charting her experiences traveling the world and visiting refugee camps.
Q13. Which country has won the hosting rights for the 2019 edition of the African Cup of Nations?
Ghana
Kenya
South Africa
Egypt
Tanzania
Solution:
Seven-time champions Egypt have won the hosting rights for the 2019 edition of the African Cup of Nations. Egypt beat South Africa by 16 votes to one at the Confederation of African Football’s (CAF) Executive Committee.
Q14. The World Bank has forecasted India’s GDP to grow at ____ in the fiscal year 2018-19, and ____ in the following two years in Global Economic Prospects report released by the World Bank.
7.3%, 7.5%
7.3%, 7.4%
7.5%, 7.7%
7.4%, 7.7%
7.7%, 7.9%
Solution:
India’s GDP is expected to grow at 7.3% in the fiscal year 2018-19, and 7.5% in the following two years, the World Bank has forecast, attributing it to an upswing in consumption and investment. India will continue to be the fastest growing major economy in the world, according to the World Bank.
Q15. The _____Constitution Amendment Bill, 2019 to award 10% reservation to economically weaker sections have been passed by the parliament.
123th
122th
124th
125th
126th
Solution:
The 124th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2019 to award 10% reservation to economically weaker sections was passed with a majority in Rajya Sabha. It was already passed in Lok Sabha.
It’s a slow process but quitting won’t speed it up.
Life’s greatest endeavors take time. You cannot achieve success overnight as big achievements are a result of persistent, untiring efforts and hard work over a long period of time. Apart from constant efforts and ample time, every task and process requires efficiency, knowledge, wisdom and intelligence which cannot happen at lightning speed. If a task seems painful and monotonously slow, have patience and keep at it. By quitting, it won’t finish or speed up, rather you will lose the consistency in doing it. So, when you go about your work with a calm and composed nature, you will get there eventually.
What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!
Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.
1. EMBROIL (verb) उलझाना Meaning: to involve in conflict or difficulties Synonyms: enmesh, ensnare, ensnarl, entangle. Antonyms: emancipate, liberate, acclimate, relieve. Example: The politician’s racist comments embroiled him in a great deal of controversy.
2. SPLURGE (verb) पैसे उड़ाना Meaning: to spend extravagantly or ostentatiously. Synonyms: squander, fling, dissipate, disburse. Antonyms: accumulate, hoard, conserve, preserve. Example: I feel like splurging on a new dress.
3. EMULATE (verb) अनुकरण करना Meaning: to use (someone or something) as the model for one's speech, mannerisms, or behavior. Synonyms: imitate, reecho, repeat, follow. Antonyms: neglect, reprove, proscribe, affront. Example: Josh is trying to emulate the success of his well-accomplished mother.
4. PETULANT (adjective) चिड़चिड़ा Meaning: easily irritated or annoyed. Synonyms: choleric, grouchy, grumpy, peevish. Antonyms: affable, cordial, genial, gregarious. Example: Because she whined about everything on the movie set, the studio head described the actress as petulant.
5. PLUCKY (adjective) हिम्मती Meaning: having or showing determined courage in the face of difficulties. Synonyms: courageous, intrepid, valiant, valorous. Antonyms: timid, timorous, gutless, frightful. Example: His plucky attitude made him a great candidate for police officer training academy.
6. RELENT (verb) नरम पड़ना Meaning: to cease resistance (as to another's arguments, demands, or control). Synonyms: concede, give in, submit, succumb. Antonyms: combat, confront, counter, defy. Example: Because my father is very angry, he won’t relent on my harsh punishment.
7. INCONGRUOUS (adjective) असंबद्ध Meaning: not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. Synonyms: discordant, conflicting, clashing, inconsistent. Antonyms: accordant, compatible, concordant, conformable. Example: Wearing a rain jacket in sunny weather is quite incongruous. 8. INTERNMENT (noun) नजरबंदी Meaning: the state of being confined as a prisoner, especially for political or military reasons. Synonyms: restraint, restriction, entrapment, detention. Antonyms: emancipation, liberation, redemption, release. Example: Everyone had to produce an identity card, including those actually in the internment camps. 9. FORESEEABLE (adjective) प्रत्याशा योग्य Meaning: able to be foreseen or predicted. Synonyms: predictable, anticipated, foreseen, presumable. Antonyms: unpredictable, atypical, irresolute, indeterminate. Example: It is foreseeable that we will get married but I’m not sure how soon. 10. CLOUT (noun) ताकत Meaning: influence or power, especially in politics or business. Synonyms: influence, dominion, predominance, supremacy. Antonyms: helplessness, powerlessness, impuissance, frailty. Example: Looking to build a business, the entrepreneur was looking to establish clout in the community.
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If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 17 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Q1. A train leaves station X at 5 a.m. and reaches station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves station Y at 7 a.m. and reaches station X at 10 : 30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
7 : 36 am
7 : 56 am
8 : 36 am
8 : 56 am
None of these
Solution:
Q2. The respective ratio of the speed of the boat in upstream to speed of the boat in downstream is 4: 9. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it covers 84 km downstream in 2 hours 20 minutes? (in km/h)
24
26
22
28
30
Solution:
Q3. A steamer went downstream for 28 km and immediately returned. It took the steamer twice as long to make the return trip. If the speed of the river flow were twice as high, the trip downstream and back would take 672 minutes. Find the speed of the steamer in still water and the speed of the river flow.
9 km/hr, 3 km/hr
9 km/hr, 6 km/hr
8 km/hr, 2 km/hr
12 km/hr, 3 km/hr
None of these
Solution:
Q4. A boat running in upstream takes 528 min to cover a certain distance, while it takes 240 min to cover the same distance running in downstream. What is the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to speed of the water current?
2 : 1
3 : 2
8 : 3
3 : 8
5 : 9
Solution:
Q5. Anita’s father was 38 years in age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother who is four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?
2 years
4 years
6 years
8 years
10 years
Solution:
Father’s age when Anita was born = 38 years Mother’s age when Anita was born = 36 – 4 = 32 years Difference = 38 – 32 = 6 years.
Directions (6 – 10): Study the following pie chart and bar graph carefully to answer the following questions. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of aspirants who have applied for various exams. The bar graph shows the vacancy in these exams.
Q6. Average of all aspirants who have applied for various given exam is approximately how many times the total no. of vacancies?
39
32
35
38
41
Solution:
Q7. If Railways reduces two-fifth of its vacancies, then total vacancies will be reduced by how much percent?
13.56%
14.56%
18.2%
17%
None of these
Solution:
Q8. What will be the difference between average number of aspirants per post in SSC and the average number of aspirant per post in IBPS?
56
41
45
52
48
Solution:
Q9. If no. of vacancies of IBPS increased by 10% and for one final selection in all the given vacancies three aspirants would be rejected during interviews. Find no. of aspirant qualified for Interview for IBPS is approximately how many times the no of aspirant qualified for PSUs and KVS interviews both?
3
3.5
5
4.5
2
Solution:
As per given statement, clearly For one post, 4 will selected for Interviews No. of posts/ vacancies in IBPS now = 9500 + 950 = 10450 ∴ No. of aspirant qualifies for IBPS interview = 10450 × 4 = 41800 No. of aspirants qualifies for PSUs and KVS interviews = (2800 + 700) × 4 = 14000 Desired value = 41800/14000 ≈ 3 times
Q10. Out of all vacancies allocated, 15% of the selected aspirants didn’t join. Hence 8% of the IBPS and 10% of Railways vacancies remain unfilled. What will be the approximate value of ratio between total vacancies remain unfilled for IBPS and Railways together to Rest of the organizations vacancy which remain unfilled.?
5 : 7
4 : 5
5 : 9
9 : 11
11 :13
Solution:
Directions (11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? Q11.
IBPS Clerk Mains exam is round the corner. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for your success by helping you save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam. Also, few questions in the Quiz may be based on short Reading Comprehensions based on IBPS PO Mains pattern so as to make you aware of the latest exam pattern.
Watch Video Solutions Here
Q1. In the following questions few sentences are provided. Identify and mark the sentence which may fail to become the part of the paragraph coherently. In questions where “none of these” is an option and all the sentences are meaningful and logical with the context of the paragraph, mark (e) i.e., “none of these” as your answer choice.
In the latest stranding, up to 90 pilot whales beached themselves late Thursday at Hanson Bay on the remote Chatham Islands, said the Department of Conservation.
Their bodies resemble the streamlined form of a fish, while the forelimbs or flippers are paddle-shaped.
When staff arrived at first light, they said they found up to 40 of the whales had refloated themselves but another 50 had died on the beach.
The department said one beached whale remained alive, which staff decided to euthanize due to its poor condition.
None of these
Solution:
Option (b) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer. As all the statements except (b) altogether are trying to convey the death of the pilot whales on stranding. Whereas the statement of option (b) is conveying the physical characteristics of the whales, thus it is the only option that is not contributing to the context of the paragraph. Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.
Q2. In the following questions few sentences are provided. Identify and mark the sentence which may fail to become the part of the paragraph coherently. In questions where “none of these” is an option and all the sentences are meaningful and logical with the context of the paragraph, mark (e) i.e., “none of these” as your answer choice.
The two countries will try to find an amicable solution to the various problems plaguing bilateral trade relations, such as disputes over intellectual property rights and Chinese state support for domestic industries, through talks over the next three months
Meanwhile, the U.S. will refrain from raising the tariff on Chinese goods worth $200 billion from the current rate of 10% to 25% on January 1, 2019, as planned.
Chinese telecom equipment giant Huawei’s Chief Financial Officer Sabrina MengWanzhou has been detained by Canadian authorities at the request of the US government, a move that sparked a protest from the Chinese government.
In return, according to the White House, China will purchase agricultural and other goods from the U.S. in order to reduce the trade imbalance between the two countries.
None of these
Solution:
Option (c) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer. As all the statements except (c), altogether are trying to convey the idea that U.S. and China must stop the trade war, as soon as possible, in a way that benefits both. Whereas the statement of option (c) is conveying the news that Huawei CFO Sabrina MengWanzhou, daughter of founder, arrested in Canada at request of US government ‘for violating Iran sanctions’, thus (c) is the only option that is not contributing to the context of the paragraph. Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.
Q3. In the following questions few sentences are provided. Identify and mark the sentence which may fail to become the part of the paragraph coherently. In questions where “none of these” is an option and all the sentences are meaningful and logical with the context of the paragraph, mark (e) i.e., “none of these” as your answer choice.
From a public health perspective, the report sounds a warning that rising temperatures will enable the dengue virus and malaria to spread farther and faster.
The staggering loss of an estimated 153 billion hours of labour during 2017 due to rising temperatures around the globe is a reminder to governments that they are not doing enough to dramatically curb greenhouse gas emissions.
The Lancet countdown on health and climate has reported that India was particularly affected by the rising frequency of heatwave events and lost about 75 billion hours of work, a significant part of it in the agricultural sector.
This has worrying implications for rural employment and the well-being of a large section of the population that depends on farming.
None of these
Solution:
Option (a) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer. As all the statements except (a), altogether are trying to convey that how the increased global warming because of theincreasing greenhouse gases emissions, is affecting the farming sector on which depends the well-being of a large section of the population. Whereas the statement of option (a) is presenting a report, warning that increase in the temperature will enable the dengue virus and malaria to spread farther and faster. Thus (a) is the only option that is not contributing to the context of the paragraph.
Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.
Q4. In the following questions few sentences are provided. Identify and mark the sentence which may fail to become the part of the paragraph coherently. In questions where “none of these” is an option and all the sentences are meaningful and logical with the context of the paragraph, mark (e) i.e., “none of these” as your answer choice.
The problem is aggravated by the burning of urban waste, diesel soot, vehicular exhaust, road and construction dust, and power generation.
Tens of millions live with ambient air quality that is well short of even the relaxed parameters the country has set for fine particulates, compared with those of the World Health Organisation.
This year’s ‘severe’ air quality rating for Delhi and poor conditions prevailing in other cities in the Indo-Gangetic Plain should compel a decisive shift in policy
They must address the burning of carbon, which is a direct source, and emissions with oxides of nitrogen and sulphur from vehicles that turn into fine particulates through atmospheric reactions.
None of these
Solution:
Option (e) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer. As all the statements altogether are trying to convey the same message that urgent correctives are needed, or lethal winter pollution will become the new normal as the air pollution is choking several cities in the northern States once again, as changes in temperature and slowing winds trap soot, dust and fine particulate matter.
Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.
Q5. In the following questions few sentences are provided. Identify and mark the sentence which may fail to become the part of the paragraph coherently. In questions where “none of these” is an option and all the sentences are meaningful and logical with the context of the paragraph, mark (e) i.e., “none of these” as your answer choice.
There are three issues on which the Centre seems to have irked the RBI.
It has refused to accept Governor Urjit Patel’s point that the RBI is hobbled by lack of adequate powers in regulating public sector banks.
The second is the tussle over the RBI’s burgeoning reserves, a piece of which the Centre is eyeing to bridge its fiscal gap.
Even as the inflation forecasts were lowered, the RBI underscored that the output gap has virtually closed.
None of these
Solution:
Option (d) is the most suitable choice to be selected as the answer. As all the statements except (d), altogether are trying to conveythe simmering tensions over the last few months between the Reserve Bank of India and the Centre,The Centre-RBI face-off is not healthy, they must resolve their differences. The statement in option (d) is talking about the inflation forecasts. Thus (d) is the only option that is not contributing to the context of the paragraph.
Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.
Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions, a sentence is given which may or may not have an error in it. In the options given below each question, four ways of writing the same sentence are given. You have to choose the sentence which is grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, choose option (e) as your answer.
Q6. Gandhi himself spent a good part of his busy life experimenting with the symbols — particularly styles of dresses — that would enhance his message.
Gandhi himself spent a good part of his busy life experiment with the symbols — particularly styles of dresses — that would enhance his message.
Gandhi himself spent a good part of his busy life experimented with the symbols — particularly styles of dresses — that would enhance his message.
Gandhi himself spent a good part of his busy life experimenting with the symbols — particularly styles of dresses — that would enhancing his message.
Gandhi himself spent a good part of his busy life experimenting with the symbols — particularly styles of dresses — that would enhances his message.
No Error
Solution:
No Error
In Option (a), 'experiment' is incorrectly used.
In Option (b), 'experimenting' will be used and not 'experimented'.
In Option (c) and (d), 'enhance' should be used.
Q7. While nuclear costs have been rise, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have become cheaper.
While nuclear costs have been rising, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have become cheaper.
While nuclear costs have been risen, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have become cheaper.
While nuclear costs having rising, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have become cheaper.
While nuclear costs have been rising, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have became cheaper.
No Error
Solution:
The correct statement is "While nuclear costs have been rising, other low-carbon sources of electricity, especially solar energy, have become cheaper. "
Q8. The dialogue sounded stilted and unnaturally, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian.
The dialogue sounding stilted and unnatural, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian.
The dialogue has been sounded stilted and unnatural, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian.
The dialogue sounded stilted and unnatural, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian.
The dialogue sounded stilt and unnatural, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian.
No Error
Solution:
The correct statement is "The dialogue sounded stilted and unnatural, perhaps because of the translation from the original Russian. "
Q9. Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India gain strength as a powerhouse at home but remained diffident overseas.
Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India gained strength as a powerhouse at home but remain diffident overseas.
Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India gained strength as a powerhouse at home but remained diffident overseas.
Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India has gained strength as a powerhouse at home but remained diffident overseas.
Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India have gained strength as a powerhouse at home but remained diffident overseas.
No Error
Solution:
The correct statement is "Since its maiden Test at Lord’s in 1932, India gained strength as a powerhouse at home but remained diffident overseas."
Q10. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or undermine it are always at work.
Literary freedom is taking for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or undermine it are always at work.
Literary freedom is taken of granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or undermine it are always at work.
Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forcing that threaten or undermine it are always at work.
Literary freedom is take for granted in democracies, but forced that threaten or undermine it are always at work.
No Error
Solution:
No Error
Directions (11-15): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage.
Rise in salinity in the water system that makes the Indian Sunderbans has resulted in a decrease in population of the Ganges River Dolphins in the region.
A recent study …………………… 100 km of rivers and channels around the Sunderbans has revealed that the national aquatic animal is no longer sighted in the central and eastern parts of the archipelago. Only in the western part of Sunderbans, where the salinity is lower, could researchers find some evidence of the species.
The details of the study have been published in Journal of Threatened Taxa, in an article titled Possible Range Decline of Ganges River Dolphin Platanista Gangetica in Indian Sundarban. The paper, authored by Sangita Mitra and Mahua Roy Chowdhury, states that “sighting records in the present study reveal that distribution of GRD (Ganges River Dolphin) is influenced by the salinity level of the waterways”.
Q11. Which of the following reflects the result of the study mentioned in the paragraph?
None of the below
The water system around the Sunderbans has a length of 100 km.
Indian Sunderbans is an archipelago.
Salinity level in the water system that makes the Indian Sunderbans has risen.
Distribution of GRD (Ganges River Dolphin) is influenced by the salinity level of the waterways.
Solution:
Option (b) is factually incorrect. The paragraph mentions that the study covered 100 km length of rivers and channels around the Sunderbans. The paragraph made no statement on the length or the size of the water system that makes the Indian Sunderbans.
Option (c) was an already known fact and wasn’t discovered through the study. So, option (c) is also wrong.
Option (d) was something which might be FOUND in the study but was NOT the result of the study.
The answer to the question can be derived from the last clause of the last sentence of the last paragraph ‘distribution of GRD (Ganges River Dolphin) is influenced by the salinity level of the waterways’.
The study attempts to find out the relationship between the salinity level of the waterways and the distribution of GRD.
Among the given options, only information presented in the option (e) which illustrates the relationship between GRD (Ganges River Dolphin) and salinity level of waterways deserves to be the RESULT of the study mentioned in the study.
Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.
Q12. Which of the followings could be inferred from the noun-phrase ‘National Aquatic Animal’? Answer the question based on the information available in the whole passage.
Turtle is not the national aquatic animal of India.
If an animal is a nation animal, then it means that the population of that animal is large in number in that nation.
National aquatic animal is same as national animal.
Both Options (a) and (c)
None of the above
Solution:
The phrase ‘national aquatic animal’ is a small phrase. The passage suggests that the Ganges River Dolphins is the national aquatic animal.
Neither the passage nor the phrase provides any suggestions to the criteria for an animal to be national animal or whether national aquatic animal is same as national animal.
From above, it can be deduced that option (a) is the correct answer.
Q13. In which of the following areas could researchers find GRD (Ganges River Dolphin)?
Water system that makes the Indian Sunderbans
Central parts of the Indian Sunderbans
Western Parts of the Indian Sunderbans
Eastern Parts of the Indian Sunderbans
None of the above
Solution:
The answer to the question can be found from the last sentence of the second paragraph ‘Only in the western part of Sunderbans, where the salinity is lower, could researchers find some evidence of the species’.
The usage of the word ‘only’ with the phrase ‘western part of Sunderbans’ along with the latter part of the sentence reveals that among the given options, GRD could be found in the Western Parts of the Indian Sunderbans.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q14. Which of the following word is the SYNONYM of the word ‘reveal’?
entitle
mention
wield
divulge
operate
Solution:
Entitle [verb] means ‘(often be entitled to) Give (someone) a legal right or a just claim to receive or do something;
Divulge [verb] means ‘make known (private or sensitive information)’;
From above, it could be understood that the word ‘divulge’ has the meaning which is SIMILAR to the meaning of the word ‘reveal’.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q15. Which of the following word can fill in the blank given in the passage above?
surround
covering
imaging
sounding
Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
'Covering' is grammatically and contextually correct fit for the blank.
Bankersadda brings to you the Revision of DAY - 16 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon. In case you've missed the DAY - 16 quizzes and LIVE DISCUSSIONS you still can watch the video solutions and attempt the quizzes.
Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF
Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 17 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Watch the Video Solutions Here
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There are certain number of persons sitting in a row facing north. E sits sixth to the right of G who likes Lemon Juice. Only two persons sit between E and J. One of the immediate neighbour of G Likes Guava Juice. K sits second to the left of J. Only one person sits in between the one who like Guava Juice and the one who like Mix Juice. M sits eight to left of K. Only two persons sit between the one who likes Mix Juice and the one who likes Apple juice. More than 11 persons sit in the row. S sit third to the left of F who is an immediate neighbour of K. Neither S nor K like Mix Juice. The one who sits seventh to the left of the one who likes Apple Juice, likes Orange Juice. M likes Grapefruit Juice and F likes Mango Juice. Only the person mentioned likes juices. Q1. If ‘E’ sits third from the right end then how many persons are sitting in the row?
14
12
16
15
None of these
Solution:
Q2. Who among the following like Orange Juice?
F
S
E
J
None of these
Solution:
Q3. If ‘R’ sits exactly between M and S then what is the position of ‘R’ with respect to G?
Fifth to the left
sixth to the right
fourth to the left
fifth to the right
None of these
Solution:
Q4. If ‘P’ sits second to the right of the one who likes Mix Juice, then how many persons sit between P and the one who likes Mango Juice?
Four
Two
Three
One
None of these
Solution:
Q5. How many total number of persons are sitting in the row?
14
12
13
11
None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. K, L, M, N, O are five persons of a three generation family. There are only two females and two married couples in the family. L is the daughter-in-law of K. N is the child of M, who is the son of O. O is not the father of M. Q6. How N is related to K?
Grand Daughter
Father
brother
Grand Son
None of these
Solution:
Q7. If X is sibling of N and O has only one grandson, then how is X related to M?
Grand Daughter
Father
brother
Grand Son
None of these
Solution:
Q8. A,B,C,D,E,F are members of a family. C is married to D, who is brother-in law of A. E has an maternal aunt, who is married to A. F is a brother of E, who is daughter of D. How is D related to E’s maternal aunt?
sister
sister-in-law
brother-in law
brother
can’t be determined
Solution:
Q9. Pointing towards a man Ritu said “he is brother of her only son’s nephew”. How is Ritu related to the man?
mother
sister
grandmother
aunt
none of these
Solution:
Q10. L is the father of M who is the brother in law of C. C is husband of H. F is the only brother of D who is the daughter of H. K is the mother of M and has only one daughter and one son. M is unmarried. Then how is D related to L?
Maternal Granddaughter
Maternal Grandson
Father
Brother
None of these
Solution:
Directions (11–15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements. Give answer: Q11. How is ‘hard’ written in a code language? I. ‘hard and work improve’ is written as ‘cl sa nk jo’, and ‘India increase in rank’ is written as ‘ha fa rs da’, II.‘hard improve in India’ is written as ‘cl fa jo da’
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Solution:
From both the statements hard can be written either cl or jo. We cannot find that what is the exact code of hard.
Q12. A is in which direction with respect to B? I. C is towards west of E and south of B. II. A is towards south-west of E and south of C.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Solution:
From both the statements we determine that A is in south direction with respect to B.
Q13. How is Pawan related to Raman? I. Pawan is the grandson of Raman’s father. II. Raman has no sister.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q14. In which direction is car A with respect to car D? I. Car D is in south of car B, which is in west of car C. II. Car A is in south-east of car B.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Solution:
From both the statements we cannot find the direction of car A with respect to car D.
Q15. In which year was Pratibha born? I. Pratibha at present is 25 years younger to her mother. II. Pratibha’s brother, who was born in 1999, is 20 years younger to his mother.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Solution:
From both I and II we get that Pratibha is 5 years younger to her brother, who was born in 1999, So, Pratibha was born in 2004.
Test your Professional Knowledge of HR with this questionnaire to prepare for IBPS HR Officer Examination. To score in IBPS SO (HR) Professional Knowledge Test candidate must have adequate knowledge of Industrial Relations, Job Evaluation, Human Resource Planning, Labour Laws, Training and Development and more. This quiz covers questions related to the Trade Union Act 1926 to help you prepare for the exam.
Q1. Which of the following has specialists from different functional departments working on one or more projects that are led by project manager?
Functional organisation
Cross-functional organisation
Matrix organisation
Product organisation
None of these
Solution:
In matrix organization, employees have dual reporting relationships - generally to both a functional manager and a product manager.
Q2. Which one of the following is related to clan control?
Relies on administrative rules and regulations
Employees’ behavior are regulated by the shared norms, traditions, rituals and beliefs of the organization
Emphasises organizational authority
Depends on standardization activities
None of these
Solution:
Clan control refers to the values and beliefs of an organization that operates more like a family than a company. In clan control, high-level management is seen as mentors rather than bosses. There are very few rules and policies put in place by the organization because it relies mostly on the trust of its employees.
Q3. Appointment of welfare officer is a statutory requirement according to
Factories Act, 1948
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Trade Union Act, 1926
Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
Payment of bonus Act, 1965
Solution:
Welfare officer in an organisation is appointed under the Factories Act, 1948.
Q4. Which of the following act deals with the issue of complaints?
Factories Act, 1948
Payment of Wages Act, 1948
Employees’ compensation Act, 1923
Industrial Employment (standing order) Act, 1946
All of these
Solution:
The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1947 is designed to provide service rules to workmen. The object of the Act is to require employers in industrial establishments to formally define conditions of employment under them. It also deals with the issue of complaints between the employers and employees.
Q5. Job description implies
Identification of the qualities required in the job holder
Performance of job in methodical way
Laying down systematically the duties and responsibilities of job
Determination of the performance standards of the job
None of these
Solution:
A job description or JD is a document that describes the general tasks, or other related duties, and responsibilities of a position. It may specify the functionary to whom the position reports, specifications such as the qualifications or skills needed by the person in the job, and a salary range.
Q6. The main contribution of HRD AUDIT is to focus on
Value Adding HRD
HRD Strategy
HRD Policies
HRD Procedures
None of these
Solution:
The primary function of HRD audit is to review every aspect of management of HR to determine the effectiveness of each programmes in an organisation.
Q7. INTUC, AITUC, HMS and UTUC adopted the code of conduct for Trade Union Rivalry in the year
1948
1958
1968
1978
None of the above
Solution:
The representatives of the four central trade union organisations - the INTUC, AITUC, HMS and UTUC –agreed to observe certain principles with a view to maintaining harmonious inter-union relations in May 1958.
Q8. How many working days of service is required to avail bonus from an employer?
30
45
60
100
75
Solution:
All employees earning up to the wage threshold (increased to INR 21,000 by the Amendments), and who have worked in the establishment for not less than 30 working days in the year are eligible to receive this statutory bonus.
Q9. Which of the following bodies is provided under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
Standing Labour Committee
Shop Level Council
Advisory Board
Council of management
Conciliation body
Solution:
Minimum wages Act, 1948 provides for the establishment of minimum wages advisory boards and wages councils, and for the regulation of the remuneration and conditions of employment of employees.
Q10. Which one is not a part of recruitment process?
Determining requirements
Planning recruitment campaign
Attracting candidates
Selecting candidates
generating candidate pool
Solution:
Recruitment is a process of finding and attracting the potential resources for filling up the vacant positions in an organization. Later on, the selection process begins which refers to the steps involved in choosing someone who has the right qualifications to fill a current or future job opening.
Q11. Which of the following is/are correct regarding coordination? 1. voluntary co-ordination is possible in a climate of dedication and mutual co-operation. 2. The Human Resource coordination includes planning, assessment and control of both, the performance of the employees, as well as the staff working in Human Resources 3. Coordination is a far more inclusive term embracing the idea of cooperation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
Solution:
Co-ordination is the unification, integration, synchronization of the efforts of group members so as to provide unity of action in the pursuit of common goals. Voluntary co-ordination results from mutual consultation and team-spirit among the members of the organisation.
Q12. When the career progression stagnates at a point, it is called
Career Resilience
Career Anchor
Career Insight
Career Plateau
Career planning
Solution:
A career plateau is the point in your career where / when you do not feel any additional upward mobility because there are fewer positions which are either not open or there are more people vying for it.
Q13. Training Evaluation at Reaction, Learning, job behavior, result is the model developed by
Kirk Patrick
Goldstein
Phillips
Brinkerhoff
Maslow
Solution:
The Kirkpatrick Model is the worldwide standard for evaluating the effectiveness of training. It considers the value of any type of training, formal or informal, across four levels.
Q14. Which of the following is not a traditional method of performance appraisal?
MBO
Checklist
Graphic rating
Field review
Critical incidents method
Solution:
MBO stands for Management by Objective. Management by Objectives (MBO) is a personnel management technique where managers and employees work together to set, record and monitor goals for a specific period of time.
Q15. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 settles the dispute between
employer v/s employer
employer v/s workmen
workmen v/s workmen
None of the above
All of the above
Solution:
Industrial dispute act resolves disputes among employers and employers, or between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person.
Dear Students, the mains examination of IBPS Clerk 2018 is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January. This opportunity not only provides you with a government job in a public sector bank but also a significant number of perks and emoluments. So, we are pretty sure that you wouldn't like it to slip through your fingers at the eleventh hour, Mains Exam being the final phase of this exam. How to sail through this exam? How to win this marathon against thousands of IBPS Clerk candidates? Are these questions running through your mind now? Put your mind at peace because Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the subjects that will be asked in the exam. The Quizzes are strictly based on the latest pattern of banking exams and incorporate the questions that are most likely to be asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19.
IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19 Pattern
Online Examination:
Sr. No
Name of Tests
(NOT BY SEQUENCE)
No. of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Medium of Exam
Time allotted for each
test (Separately timed)
1
General/ Financial Awareness
50
50
English & Hindi
35 minutes
2
English Language
40
40
English
35 minutes
3
Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude
50
60
English & Hindi
45 minutes
4
Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
English & Hindi
45 minutes
Total
190
200
160 minutes
Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF
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Daily Quizzes (English, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, Banking Awareness, Professional Knowledge for SO Exams & Current Affairs) for everyday practice.
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The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!
National News
1. India's Longest Single Lane Steel Cable Bridge Opened in Arunachal Pradesh
i. India’s longest 300-meter single lane steel cable suspension bridge was inaugurated by Arunachal Pradesh Chief Minister Pema Khandu. He also laid the foundation stone for a district secretariat building.
ii. The bridge across the Siang river at Yingkiong in Upper Siang district has been named Byorung Bridge. It is built at a cost of Rs48.43-crore provided by the DONER (Department for Development of North Eastern Region)Ministry. The Bridge will reduce the distance from Yinkiong to Tuting by almost 40 km.
iii. The Centre had sanctioned 268 road projects worth Rs3,800-crore under the Prime Minister’s Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY). Mr. Khandu also announced Rs10-crore for a project to check river erosion at Yingkiong and Tuting.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Brigadier B D Mishra is the present Governor of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Important Cabinet Approvals: 11th January 2019
i. The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has given the following set of approvals. The important Cabinet Approvals are given as follows:
ii. The Cabinet has approved-
1. MoU on Maritime issues between India and Denmark. 2. MoU between India and Japan on Development of Advanced Model Single Window.
3. Centre launches 5-yr Plan To Combat Pollution In 102 cities
i. The Environment Ministry launched the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aimed at reducing toxic particulate matter in 102 Indian cities by 2024.
ii. The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year plan with 2019 as the first year, while 2017 will be the base year for comparison of concentration. An amount of INR300 crore has been sanctioned for this purpose.
4. 25th Edition of Partnership Summit Held in Mumbai
i. The 25th edition of Partnership Summit 2019, a global platform for dialogue, debate, deliberation and engagement among Indian and global leaders on economic policy and growth trends in India was held in Mumbai.
ii. The two-day event was inaugurated by the Vice President of India, M Venkaiah Naidu. The Summit was organized by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, State Government of Maharashtra and Confederation of Indian Industry.
5. 29th Indian Paint Conference 2019 Started in Agra
i. The Indian Paint Association (IPA), the apex body of the country's paint industry announced that the 29th biennial Indian Paint Conference started in Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
ii. The theme of the Conference is 'Paints Pe Charcha - Naye Aayaam'. This is the largest trade show of the estimated INR 500 billion (50,000 Crore) Indian Paints & Coatings industry.
Appointments
6. Maduro Sworn In As Venezuela President for 2nd Term
i. Nicolás Maduro was sworn in for a second term as Venezuela's President amid the economic and humanitarian crisis faced by the Latin American country. Maduro was re-elected last year.
ii. The US, EU and 13 other countries have stated that they would not recognise Maduro's Presidency.
Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-
7. IWF President Named As Chef de Mission for Tokyo Olympics
i. President of the Indian Weightlifting Federation (IWF), Birendra Prasad Baishya, has been named Chef de Mission for the 2020 Tokyo Olympics. ii. It is for the first time that the Weightlifting has been accorded with the honor of Chef de Mission for the Olympics. Baishya is also one of the Indian Olympic Association Vice Presidents.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
The 2020 Summer Olympics, officially known as the Games of the XXXII Olympiad and commonly known as Tokyo 2020, is a forthcoming international multi-sport event that is scheduled to take place from 24 July to 9 August 2020.
Ranks and Reports
8. India Ranks 79th, Japan Tops List Of Most Powerful Passports
i. According to the Henley Passport Index, India jumped two positions from 81st in 2018 to 79th in 2019. Japan retained its top spot as the world's most travel-friendly passport.
ii. China jumped almost 20 places in just two years, from 85th in 2017 to 69th this year. The Henley Passport Index is based on data provided by the International Air Transport Authority (IATA) and covers 199 passports and 227 travel destinations.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
Japan Capital: Tokyo, Currency: Japanese yen, PM: Shinzo Abe.
Sports News
9. Harendra Singh Discontinued as Indian Men's Hockey Team Coach
i. Indian men's hockey coach Harendra Singh was removed from the position and offered the task of helming the junior squad by the national federation. Harendra Singh was brought in as men's coach in May 2018 after Sjoerd Marijne was moved back to the women's camp.
ii. Hockey India stated that it will be inviting applications for the position of chief coach and in the interim, the team will be overseen by Hockey India High-Performance Director David John and current Analytical Coach, Chris Ciriello.
10. Mary Kom Attains No. 1 Position in AIBA Rankings
i. M C Mary Kom has attained number one position in the International Boxing Association’s (AIBA) latest world rankings. She became the most successful boxer in world championships’ history when she claimed the 48kg category top honors in Delhi in November 2018.
ii. In the 51kg category list, Pinki Jangra is placed eighth. Asian silver-medallist Manisha Maun is placed eighth in the 54kg category. In the 57kg division, former world silver-medallist Sonia Lather was placed at the second spot.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Mary Kom picked up gold medals at the Commonwealth Games and a tournament in Poland.
She also won a silver at the prestigious Strandja Memorial in Bulgaria.
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released the scorecard and cut-off for Specialist Officers (SO) Prelims Exam 2018-19. IBPS SO Prelims Examination was conducted on 30th of December 2018. All the candidates who had appeared in this exam can check their score from the link given below. IBPS SO Main Exam will be conducted on 27th of January 2019 (Sunday).
Important Dates: Commencement of Result: 11th January 2019 Closure of Result: 27th of January 2019
Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions
Directions (1-2): In the following questions, two quantities I and II are given. You have to find these quantities to give answer Q1. Quantity I. Capacity of the water tank. There is a hole in the water tank which can empty it in 8 hours. A pipe is opened which fills 6 litre water per minute in tank and now tank is emptied in 12 hours. Quantity II. Simple interest of a sum of money at the same rate of interest for 2 years. Compound interest of the same sum of money for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum is Rs. 2,448.
If Quantity I > Quantity II
If Quantity II > Quantity I
If Quantity I = Quantity II
If Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
If Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Solution:
Q2. Quantity I. Present average age of Abhishek and Rohit. The ratio of age of Abhishek and Rohit 4 year before was 4: 5 and Ratio of their ages 2 years later will be 5: 6. Quantity II. Initial quantity of mixture. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in ratio 3: 1. if 20 liters of mixture is taken out and 15 liters of milk is added then ratio of milk and water becomes 4: 1.
If Quantity I > Quantity II
If Quantity II > Quantity I
If Quantity I = Quantity II
If Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
If Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Solution:
Q3. Three vessels contain equal mixtures of acid and water in the ratio 6 : 1, 5 : 2 and 3 : 1 respectively. If all the solutions are mixed together, the ratio of acid to water in the final mixture will be
64 : 65
65 : 19
19 : 65
64 : 19
39 : 17
Solution:
Q4. A manufacturer has 200 litres of Acid solution which has 15% acid content. How many litres of solution with 30% Acid content may be added so that Acid content in the resulting mixture will be more than 20% but less than 25%
More than 100 litres but less than 300 litres
More than 120 litres but less than 400 litres
More than 100 litres but less than 400 litres
More than 120 litres but less than 300 litres
None of these
Solution:
Q5. In a rectangular plot of 24m × 16m two roads of 1.5m wide each as shown in figure were made. If cost of making road is Rs. 310 per m² then find the cost of making whole road.
Rs. 22000.50
Rs. 18850
Rs. 17902.50
Rs. 14603
None of these
Solution:
Area of road is = 16 × 1.5 + 24 × 1.5 – 1.5 × 1.5 = 24 + 36 – 2.25 = 57.75 So, total cost of road making = 57.75 × 310 Rs. = Rs. 17902.5
Directions (6-10): Study the information carefully and answer the questions. In a college, 150 students of MBA are enrolled. The ratio of boys to girls is 7:8. There are three disciplines, namely Marketing, HR and Finance, in the college. In Marketing discipline there are 50% girls of their total number and the boys are 40% of their total number. In HR discipline, girls are 30% of their total number while boys are also 30% of their number. 7 boys and 9 girls are enrolled in HR and Marketing both. 6 boys and 7 girls are enrolled in HR and finance together. 5 boys and 8 girls are enrolled in Marketing and Finance both. 2 boys and 3 girls are enrolled in all the three disciplines. Q6. What percentage of students are enrolled in all the three disciplines?
3.3%
7.2%
8.5%
9.32%
None of these
Solution:
Q7. What is the ratio of boys to girls only in Marketing disciplines?
13:9
9:13
9:11
11:9
None of these
Solution:
Q8. The ratio of number of boys in Marketing and Finance both to that of girls only in Finance is?
5:3
3:5
5:4
4:7
None of these
Solution:
Q9. By what per cent is the number of boys in Marketing discipline is more than the number of girls in HR discipline?
Solution:
Q10. The ratio of boys to girls enrolled only in HR discipline is
10:11
9:10
7:5
5:7
None of these
Solution:
Directions (11-15): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations? Q11. 28% of 85 + 13.2 = ?
