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English Language Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims Exam - 3rd January 2019

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Dear Aspirants, 


English Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims 


NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.






Directions (1-7): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence is given which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank, choose option (e) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice. 

Q1. Your usually cheerful dog may act surly if it has a splinter -----------------------.
on its paw
in its paw
in it’s paw
of its paw
None of these
Solution:
‘in its paw’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually.

Q2. If the judge ----------------------- the defendant with a life sentence, he will anger the public.
does not condemns
does did condemn
does not condemn
do not condemn
None of these
Solution:
’does not condemn’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually.

Q3. Because the job offer is conditional, Todd -------------------------- hired until his background check has been approved.
will not be officially
will not be in officially
would not officially
would not have been official
None of these
Solution:
‘will not be officially’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually.

Q4. A majority of African Americans --------------------------- democratic in this election like elections of the past.
customarily had voted
customer have voted
customer voted
customarily voted
None of these
Solution:
‘customarily voted’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually.

Q5. Known for his frankness, the car salesman -------------------- about the condition of his used vehicles.
would have been always forthright
would be always forth
was always forthright
were always forthright
None of these
Solution:
‘was always forthright’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually. Forthright means direct and outspoken.

Q6. Ever since April lost her job, she has done nothing but ------------------------------------.
wallow on self pity
wallow in self pity
wallow for self pity
wallow from self pity
None of these
Solution:
‘wallow in self pity’ is correct here both grammatically and contextually. Wallow means in an unrestrained way.

Q7. After years of the same Christmas customs, my family members ------------------------- presents at least for all of the children in the family.
obligate to buy
obligating to buy
obligate in buy
obligate for buy
None of these
Solution:
‘obligate to buy’ is the correct option here. ‘Obligate’ means compulsory to do.

Directions (8-15): In each of the questions given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then followed by five options which then try to decipher its meaning. Choose the option which gives the correct meaning of the phrases. 

Q8. A blessing in disguise
Using false language
Showering of a blessing
A taunt which seemed like a blessing
A good thing that seemed bad at first
None of the above
Solution:
‘A blessing in disguise’ means a good thing that seemed bad at first.

Q9. Go back to the drawing board
To start over again
To continue drawing
To paint a wall
To start painting once again after a long time
None of the above
Solution:
‘Go back to the drawing board’ means to start over again.

Q10. It's not rocket science
It is not to launch a rocket
It’s not complicated
It’s not untidy
It’s not harmful
None of the above
Solution:
‘It’s not complicated’ means It’s not complicated.

Q11. That's the last straw
I don’t have enough straws with me
I don’t have enough stamina to compete in the sack race
My patience has run out
The waiter didn’t give me any straws with coke
None of the above
Solution:
’That’s the last straw’ means my patience has run out.

Q12. Wrap your head around something
Understand something complicated
Understand something very simple
To laugh at a joke
To have a good sense of humor
None of the above
Solution:
‘Wrap your head around something’ means understanding something very complicated.

Q13. A perfect storm
A calamity
A hurricane destroying property
Worst possible situation
A chronic illness
None of the above
Solution:
‘A perfect storm’ means worst possible situation.

Q14. Birds of a feather flock together
People who are alike are often friends
Birds migrate to warmer places during winters
People who are alike hate each other
People who are friends dance with each other
None of the above
Solution:
‘Birds of a feather flock together’ means people who are alike are often friends.

Q15. By the skin of your teeth
Just rarely
Just often
Seldom
Just barely
None of the above
Solution:
‘By the skin of your teeth’ means just barely.

               



         


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Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 3rd January 2019

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Dear Aspirants,
Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 3rd January 2019

Reasoning Questions for NIACL AO 2019

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.





Directions (1-3): Study the following information to answer the given questions. 
Five boxes are arranged from bottom to top (bottom is numbered as 1 and top is numbered as 5) in such a way that White box is just above Orange box There are two boxes in between Blue and Pink box. Blue box is above Pink box. Black Box is not immediately above or below Blue box. 

Q1. Which box is at bottom?

White
Pink
Blue
Black
Orange
Solution:


Q2. Which box is at top?
Black
Orange
Blue
White
Pink
Solution:

Q3. Which box is immediately above Pink box?
Blue
Orange
Black
Pink
White
Solution:

Directions (4-5): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. 

U, V, W, X, Y and Z are six friends and each of a different age, U is elder than only X. Only three people are elder than W. Z is elder than Y. Z is not the eldest.


Q4. Who amongst the following is the eldest?

V
U
Y
W
None of these
Solution:
V > Z > Y >W > U > X

Q5. If Y's age is 16 years, then which of the following may be X's age?
19 years
22 years
18 years
17 years
12 years
Solution:
V > Z > Y >W > U > X

Directions (6-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

A walked 40m towards east from his shop and took a right turn and walked 20m. He again took a right turn and walked 30m. Finally he took a right turn, walked 10m and reached to the station.


Q6. In which direction was the station located from his shop?

South
Southeast
Northeast
Northwest
East
Solution:


Q7. What was the total distance covered by A to reach the station?
100m
40m
80m
60m
50m
Solution:


Directions (8-10): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

A walked 7m towards north direction and after reaching point B he take a right turn and reached point C after walking 5m. From there he takes a left turn and walked 5m to reach point D and again take a left turn and walked 7m to reach point E. 


Q8. What is the shortest distance between point E to B?

29m.
25m.
√29m.
5√2m.
None of these.
Solution:


Q9. In which direction of the initial point with respect to E?
North
South
East
West
None of these.
Solution:


Q10. What is the shortest distance between B and D and in which direction is D with respect to B?
√25m. , North east
√50m. , North
5√2m. , North east
2√25m. , North east
√50m. , East
Solution:


Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: 
In code language
“European Union early” is written as “21&13, 5#13, 5&2”.
“With the government” is written as “23#19, 20&22, 7#7”.
“Earlier this morning” is written as “5&9, 20#8, 13&20”.


Q11. What is the code for ‘Money’?

13#2
13&2
14#2
14&2
None of these
Solution:


Q12. What is the code for “Loyal”?
12#15
15&12
12&15
11&15
None of these
Solution:

Q13. Which of the following words could be coded as “20#8 25#9”?
This Month
That Month
Those People
This Year
That Year
Solution:

Q14. Which of the following word is coded as “3#22”?
Cites
Civic
Alone
Along
Code
Solution:

Q15. Which of the following would be the code for “Bottoms”?
2&8
2&7
2#8
2#7
3&8
Solution:

               






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General Awareness Quiz For IBPS Clerk and NIACL AO Main | 03rd January 2019

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Dear Aspirants,

General Awareness for IBPS Clerk Mains 

Preparing for NIACL AO and IBPS Clerk Main Examination!! Don't miss the GA Quiz. One section that can help you bagging graceful marks in these examinations is General Awareness, that comprises of numerous sections like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. Here is the quiz on General Awareness that is being provided by Adda247 to help you ace graceful marks in Karnataka Bank PO and Lakshmi Vilas Bank PO Examinations. Not only this, but these quizzes will also prove propitious for the upcoming Bank, Insurance and other competitive examinations.




Q1. World Science Day for Peace and Development is celebrated every year on __________.
4 November
7 November
10 November
3 November
1 November
Solution:
World Science Day for Peace and Development is celebrated every year on 10 November. The theme for 2018 is “Science, a Human Right”.

Q2. Name the country in which Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu has recently inaugurated Indian War Memorial at Villers Guislain.
France
Russia
Greece
Italy
Denmark
Solution:
Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu was a three-day visit to France. He inaugurated Indian War Memorial at Villers Guislain. Earlier the Vice President attended the Indian community reception in Paris.

Q3. Indian Army inducted new artillery guns and equipment, including K9 Vajra and M777 howitzers, at Deolali artillery centre in Nashik, Maharashtra. The guns have a range of __________.
20 km
40 km
50 km
30 km
25 km
Solution:
Indian Army inducted new artillery guns and equipment, including K9 Vajra and M777 howitzers, at Deolali artillery centre in Nashik, Maharashtra. The guns have a range of 30 km and can be moved to the desired location using helicopters and service aircraft.

Q4. Name the two countries that have recently started the 25th edition of SIMBEX that is the “largest since 1994 in terms of scale and complexity”.
India and Switzerland
India and Singapore
India and Indonesia
Indonesia and Singapore
Pakistan and Singapore
Solution:
India and Singapore have started the 25th edition of SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise) off Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal. According to the Defence Ministry, SIMBEX 2018 is the “largest since 1994 in terms of scale and complexity”.

Q5. "Your Own Bank" is tagline of-
UCO Bank
Indian Bank
Bank of India
Corporation Bank
Bank of Baroda
Solution:
"Your Own Bank" is the tagline of Indian Bank.

Q6. What is the tagline of Bank of India?
Where India Banks
A Tradition of Trust
Honours Your Trust
A Friend you can Bank Upon
Relationship beyond Banking
Solution:
"Relationship Beyond Banking" is the tagline of Bank of India.

Q7. Corporation Bank is a public-sector banking company headquartered in Mangalore, India. What is the tagline of Corporation Bank?
A Premier Public Sector Bank
A Tradition of Trust
Honours Your Trust
India's International Bank
Relationship Beyond Banking
Solution:
Corporation Bank is a public-sector banking company headquartered in Mangalore, India. The bank has a pan-Indian presence. The tagline of Corporation Bank is "A Premier Public Sector Bank".

Q8. The theme for 2018 World Science Day for Peace and Development was ____________.
Role of science for peaceful and sustainable society
Science, a Human Right
International solidarity for shared science between countries
Science for Peace
None of the given theme is true
Solution:
World Science Day for Peace and Development is celebrated every year on 10 November. The theme for 2018 is “Science, a Human Right”.

Q9. Which of the following state Government has announced Rs378 crore investment in the second phase of the State’s flagship aquaculture mission aimed at cutting down fish imports into the hill State?
Sikkim
Assam
Himachal Pradesh
Meghalaya
Arunachal Pradesh
Solution:
The Meghalaya Government announced Rs378 crore investment in the second phase of the State’s flagship aquaculture mission aimed at cutting down fish imports into the hill State. The mission — Meghalaya State Aqua Mission 2.0 — was announced by Fisheries Minister Comingone Ymbon at the 5th state aqua festival held in Shillong at the U Soso Tham auditorium premises.

Q10. Unemployment rate in the country rose to what percent in October 2018 which is highest in two years, according to a report by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)?
5.6%
6.9%
6.3%
5.1%
3.4%
Solution:
Unemployment rate in the country rose to 6.9% in October, the highest in two years, according to a report by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE). The estimated number of people employed during October 2018 was 397 million.

Q11. As per the recent announcement by RBI, the minimum average maturity requirement for ECBs in the infrastructure space raised by eligible borrowers has been reduced to three years from earlier five years. ECB stands for?
External Company Borrowings
External Commercial Borrowings
Exempted Company Borrowings
Exempted Commercial Borrowings
Editorial Classic Budget
Solution:
The Reserve Bank has liberalised the norms governing foreign borrowings for infrastructure creation “in consultation with the Government”. As per the notification, the minimum average maturity requirement for ECBs (external commercial borrowings) in the infrastructure space raised by eligible borrowers has been reduced to three years from earlier five years.

Q12. The Ukai Dam has constructed across the Tapti River, is the second largest reservoir in-
Manipur
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Gujarat
Maharashtra
Solution:
The Ukai Dam, constructed across the Tapti River, is the second largest reservoir in Gujarat after the Sardar Sarovar.

Q13. In which state Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located?
Tamil Nadu
Rajasthan
Uttarakhand
Himachal Pradesh
Odisha
Solution:
Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Rajsamand District of Rajasthan State in western India.

Q14. International Literacy Day is celebrated annually on-
September 27
September 8
September 14
September 16
September 10
Solution:
International Literacy Day, celebrated annually on 8 September, is an opportunity for Governments, civil society and stakeholders to highlight improvements in world literacy rates, and reflect on the world's remaining literacy challenges. The issue of literacy is a key component of the UN's Sustainable Development Goals and the UN's 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

Q15. The Reserve Bank of India is likely to establish an ombudsman for __________ by March 2019 to take the load off the increasing number of complaints currently being handled by the banking ombudsman.
All RRBs
NBFCs
Digital payments
All PSBs
None of the given options is true
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India is likely to establish an ombudsman for digital payments by March 2019 to take the load off the increasing number of complaints currently being handled by the banking ombudsman.

                               




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BA Study Kit: 03rd January 2019

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Dear Aspirants,


BA Study Kit: 03rd January 2019

Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.


Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk,  RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!

1. Time To THINK: 3rd January

2. Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 3rd January 2019

3. Current Affairs Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains : 3rd January 2019

4. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 3rd January 2019

5. Road To Success: 30 Days NIACL AO Phase-I 2019 Study Plan | Day 3

6. SEBI Assistant Manager Phase-II Result Out: Check the Result Here

7. Sentence Completion for IBPS Clerk Mains: 3rd January 2019

8. Interview Tips: What To Wear To IBPS PO Interview 2018-19

9. Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 3rd January 2019

10. IBPS CLERK MAINS | High-level Arithmetic | Day -7 | AMIT SIR

11. IBPS SO 2018 Professional Knowledge Quiz for IT | DBMS

12. IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon: 25 Days Study Plan- Day 9 | Download PDF

13. IBPS Clerk Mains Ebooks Kit (English Edition)

14. DAY 8 | Practice Marathon for IBPS Clerk Mains: REVISION | Quant, Reasoning & English

15. Current Affairs December 2018 PDF | GK Power Capsule PDF (The Hindu Review)

16. Current Affairs 3rd January 2019: Daily GK Update 

17. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 3rd January 2019

18. English Language Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims Exam - 3rd January 2019

19. General Awareness Quiz For IBPS Clerk and NIACL AO Main | 03rd January 2019

The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

                                   
        

Current Affairs Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019

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Dear Aspirants,


Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk 4th January 2019

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO 

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. Most of the questions in GA appear from Current Affairs section. So it becomes important for you all to cover this particular section with sincerity and seriousness. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.



Q1. Which of the following sentence is not correct?
Guwahati Airport renamed as Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Kishore Airport.
British-era railway station Robertsgang renamed as Sonbhadra.
Mughalsarai junction renamed after Deen Dayal Upadhyay.
Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport in Mumbai renamed as Chhatrapati Shivaji ‘Maharaj’ International Airport.
All the above statements are right.
Solution:
Agartala Airport renamed as Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Kishore Airport. All other options are right.

Q2. As per RBI Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India, what % of the total complaints received by all BO offices, is from tier-1 cities like New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Hyderabad?
67%
75%
49%
79%
57%
Solution:
The number of complaints registered at banking ombudsman offices have seen a 25% increase in the fiscal year 2018. “The banking ombudsman offices in tier-1 cities like New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Hyderabad accounted for more than 57% of the total complaints received by all BO offices,” the RBI Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India has stated.

Q3. The West Bengal government announced two welfare initiatives for farmers. The first initiative will provide Rs 2 lakh to the family of a deceased farmer while under the second initiative, farmers would get Rs 2,500 twice a year for growing a single crop on one acre of land. Name the scheme both the initiatives are part of.
Bangla Krishak Bondhu
Krishi Krishak Bondhu
Krishak Bondhu Vikas Yojana
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
None of the above option is the right answer
Solution:
The West Bengal government announced two welfare initiatives for farmers. Both initiatives, which are part of the ‘Krishi Krishak Bondhu’ scheme, will come into effect from 1st January 2019.

Q4. Who among the following has been appointed as the Director General of Ordnance Factories (DGOF) and chairman of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB)?
CA Kuttappa
Sudhir Kumar
Hemant Kumar
Saurabh Kumar
P V Bharthi
Solution:
Saurabh Kumar has been appointed as the Director General of Ordnance Factories (DGOF) and chairman of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB). Kumar, a 1982-batch Indian Ordnance Factory Service officer, is an M-Tech in mechanical engineering from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kanpur.

Q5. Who among the following has been appointed as the Acting Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India?
Hemant Bhargava
Sudhir Bhargava
Y K Yadav
Ajay Tyagi
BVP Rao
Solution:
The government has appointed Hemant Bhargava, Managing Director, Life Insurance Corporation of India, as the Acting Chairman. The move comes after VK Sharma retired from the top job at LIC on December 31.

Q6. CH Lokanath passed away after suffering cardiac arrest. He was a Veteran_______
Telugu actor
Kannada writer
Kannada actor
Tamil actor
Tamil journalist
Solution:
Veteran Kannada actor CH Lokanath passed away after suffering cardiac arrest. He was 91. Lokanath was in the Kannada film industry for nearly six decades and was affectionately addressed as ‘Uncle Lokanath’ by his fans.

Q7. In which district of Punjab, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 106th Indian Science Congress (ISC-2019)?
Chandigarh
Ludhiana
Jalandhar
Amritsar
Gurdaspur
Solution:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 106th Indian Science Congress (ISC-2019) at Jalandhar, Punjab.

Q8. What is the theme for the 106th Indian Science Congress (ISC-2019)?
Future: Artificial Intelligence In India
Future: India-Science and Technology
India-Technology and Internet of Things
Science of Internet and Technology
None of the above option is the right answer
Solution:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 106th Indian Science Congress (ISC-2019) at Jalandhar, Punjab. The theme for which is ‘Future: India-Science and Technology’.

Q9. Ramakant Achrekar passed away following a heart attack. He was a veteran________.
Dance teacher
Cartoonist
Journalist
Cricket coach
Musician
Solution:
Veteran cricket coach Ramakant Achrekar, who trained Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar and Vinod Kambli, among others, passed away following a heart attack.

Q10. Veer Savarkar International Airport has been declared as an authorized Immigration Check post for entry into/exit from India. This airport is located at_______.
Kanyakumari
Ross Island
Lakshadweep
Port Blair
Swaraj Dweep
Solution:
Veer Savarkar International Airport in Port Blair has been declared as an authorized Immigration Check post for entry into/exit from India with valid travel documents for all classes of passengers.

Q11. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) set up an expert committee to suggest long-term solutions for the economic and financial sustainability of the MSME sector. Who is the chairman of this committee?
U.K. Sinha
Shaktikanta Das
Ajay Tyagi
Piyush Goyal
R S Sharma
Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) set up an expert committee under former Sebi chairman U.K. Sinha to suggest long-term solutions for the economic and financial sustainability of the MSME sector.

Q12. Telangana has got its first independent high court now. Who has sworn in as the first Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court?
Justice Shri Krishna Ayyar
Justice BT Ramamurthi
Justice TBN Radhakrishnan
Justice BN Kumaraswami
Justice P Sathashivam
Solution:
Justice Thottathil Bhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan was sworn in as the first Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court. The oath to the office was administered to Justice Radhakrishnan by Telangana and Andhra Pradesh Governor ESL Narasimhan at a ceremony held at Raj Bhavan.

Q13. The cabinet has approved the merger of two other banks with Bank of Baroda. These two banks are______.
Dena Bank & Syndicate Bank
Vijaya Bank & UCO Bank
Vijaya Bank & Yes Bank
Dena Bank & United Bank
None of the above option is the right answer
Solution:
The cabinet has approved the merger of Vijaya Bank & Dena Bank with Bank of Baroda. After this merger, Bank of Baroda will become the third biggest public sector bank. The merger will be effective from April 1.

Q14. The Cabinet has approved the restructuring of National Health Agency as _______for better implementation of Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana.
Rastriya AYUSH Mission
National Health Authority
National AYUSH Agency
Health Authority of India
Indian Health Authority
Solution:
The Cabinet has approved the restructuring of National Health Agency as National Health Authority for better implementation of Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana.

Q15. The Cabinet has given its approval and allows inclusion of merchant exporters under a scheme 'IES' for Pre and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit. What does E stands for in IES?
Exim
Export
Equalisation
Equity
Enquiry
Solution:
In IES, E stands for Equalisation. The CCEA has given its approval to the proposal of the Department of Commerce for including merchant exporters under the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) for Pre and Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit by allowing them interest equalisation rate of 3% on such credit for export of products covered under 416 tariff lines identified under the scheme.

               

 

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Time To THINK: 4th January

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"Respond - don't react. Listen- don't talk. Think- don't assume."




Listening is a trait which is of paramount importance if you want to clearly understand and assimilate the context of the conversation. Whenever someone is speaking try to listen to them rather than framing your own counter-replies. Pay some attention and it’ll let you understand the content better and take the conversation in the right direction which is fruitful. If you listen more it’ll increase your knowledge and your critical thinking. Listening will not make you say something completely random and not make you look like a fool. The other people will acknowledge your patient listening and will react the same way when you speak. This will lead to a deeper emotional bond and will let you understand each other more effectively thus, opening a door of success in life.


What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!

Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 4th January 2019

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Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.

1. DIN (Noun) : शोर,कोलाहल
Meaning: a loud, unpleasant, and prolonged noise.
Synonyms: babel, bedlam, clash, clatter
Antonyms: calm, order, peace, quiet
Example: The din from my neighbor’s party will probably keep me up all night.

2. PATRONAGE (noun) : प्रश्रय देना
Meaning: support of a cause
Synonyms: aegis, auspices, backing, subsidy
Antonyms: attack, blockage, obstruction, opposition
Example: Your patronage of the arts program will allow our students to put on four plays this year.

3. VEX (verb) : खीझाना
Meaning: make (someone) feel annoyed, frustrated, or worried, especially with trivial matters.
Synonyms: afflict, agitate, annoy, exasperate
Antonyms: aid, appeade, calm, comfort
Example: Because you are having a bad day, do not assume the entire world is out to vex you.

4. GRIM (adjective) : विकट
Meaning: very serious or gloomy.
Synonyms: stern, forbidding, uninviting, unapproachable
Antonyms: amiable, pleasant
Example: His expression was grim when he told them they had lost their jobs.

5. UNTRAMMELLED (adjective) : बेरोक
Meaning: not deprived of freedom of action or expression; not restricted or hampered.
Example: He was not free to give her the untrammelled life that she deserved.

6. LOCUS (noun) : ठिकाना
Meaning: a particular position or place where something occurs or is situated
Synonyms: arrangement, location, condition, circumstances
Antonyms: boon, disarrangement
Example: The locus of these intersections is the quadratrix.

7. DISCORD (noun) : मतभेद
Meaning: disagreement between people.
Synonyms: strife, conflict, friction, hostility
Antonyms: agreement, accord, harmony
Example: A note of discord has crept into relations between the two countries.

8. INVASIVE (adjective) : आक्रमणशील
Meaning: tending to spread very quickly and undesirably or harmfully.
Synonyms: nosy, interfering
Example:  The samples tested in this series may not include a high proportion of health care staff involved in invasive procedures.

9. OMINOUS (adjective) : अमंगलसूचक
Meaning: giving the worrying impression that something bad is going to happen; threateningly inauspicious.
Synonyms: threatening, menacing, baleful, forbidding
Antonyms: promising, auspicious, propitious
Example: There were ominous dark clouds gathering overhead.

10. VITIATE (verb) : विदूषित करना
Meaning: spoil or impair the quality or efficiency of.
Synonyms: annihilate, negate, quash, abate
Antonyms: allow, help, permit, affirm
Example: Changes at this point may actually vitiate the entire system.

You may also like to Read:

IBPS CLERK MAINS | PARA COMPLETION | ENGLISH VINGLISH | DAY - 5 | ANCHAL MAM | 10 A.M.

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The Editorial Today 4TH January 2019 | | The Hindu | Editorial Discussion by VISHAL SIR | 9 A.M.




Current Affairs 2018 | 4TH January 2019 | The Hindu/IndianExpress/TOI/ET




The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

                                                             
        

Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) Prelims Exam- 04th January 2019 (Shift-1): How was your exam?

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Dear Aspirants,


Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) Prelims Exam

The Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) Prelims- 04th January 2019 (Shift-1) exam is over now. So, it's time to share your experience of the exam as it will help others know bits and parts of the exam. Share your Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) Prelims 2019 exam review and know where you stand among thousands of aspirants who appeared for the exam. And if you remember any questions or the type, share it with us.

Your reviews will be propitious for the fellow readers and will help them build up their own strategies for upcoming exams based on the reviews shared.

Kindly share these details:
  • The difficulty level of English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability. 
  • The number of doable questions in the above sections.

Share Your exam experience, questions asked and review with us at blogger@adda247.com

      

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019

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Dear Students,
Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019


Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Main

If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 10 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.




Q1. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can they be selected such that at least one boy should be there?
159
194
205
209
224
Solution:

Q2. There are 5 blue flags, 4 red flags and 3 green flags, in Debu’s wardrobe. He has to select 4 flags from this set. In how many ways can he select these four flags such that there is at least one blue flag and exactly one green flag in them (Do not consider that the flags are in pairs)?
245
240
495
60
310
Solution:

Q3. Two bags A and B contain 7 red and 6 blue balls respectively. Some blue balls from bag B are taken out and kept into bag A. If probability of selecting two blue ball from bag A is 1/15, find the number of blue balls drawn from bag B.
2
4
3
5
6
Solution:

Q4. A number is selected at random from the first 30 natural numbers. What is the probability that it is either a multiple of 2 or a multiple of 3?
13/30
2/3
2/5
17/30
23/30
Solution:

Q5. Three persons Dev, Deepak and Dudhiya Singh run a race. The probability of completing the race by them is 1/3,2/5 and 4/5 respectively. Find the probability that at least two persons complete the race.
12/25
38/75
17/35
26/49
37/75
Solution:

Directions (6 - 10): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below it. 

Percentage of obese men, obese women and obese children in America in various years


Total number of Men, Women and Children in the US over the years


Q6. What was the approximately average of obese men, obese women, and obese children in 2015?
199900
210000
219000
205460
None of these
Solution:

Q7. Find the total no of men who are not suffering from obesity in year 2014 and 2015 together?
715000
651000
751000
655700
None of these
Solution:

Q8. What was the respective ratio of the difference between the obese Men and Women in 2012 to the difference between total obese Women and Children in 2013?
199 : 1080
105 : 687
2 : 7
110 : 1099
None of these
Solution:

Q9. What is the difference between the total number of obese women and obese children in all the year?
1055000
1056000
1017000
1057000
None of these
Solution:

Q10. Total number of children not suffering from any obesity in 2015 and 2016 together is approximately what percent more or less than the total no of Men suffering from obesity in 2016 and total no. of women not suffering from obesity in 2013.?
40%
50%
55%
60%
None of the above
Solution:

Directions (11-15): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 

Q11. 9, 31, 73, 141, (?)
164
280
239
241
251
Solution:

Q12. 35, 256, 451, 620, 763, (?)
680
893
633
880
780
Solution:

Q13. 948, 474, ?, 118.5, 59.25, 29.625
221
190
237
189.06
421
Solution:

Q14. 374, 355, 317, ?, 184, 89
260
298
279
241
341
Solution:

Q15. 1548, 516, 129, 43, ?
11
10.75
9.5
12
14.5
Solution:
÷ 3, ÷ 4, ÷ 3,÷4………..
∴ 43/4 = 10.75

               






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Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) Prelims Exam Analysis, Review: 04th January 2019 (Shift-01)

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Dear Aspirants,


biahr-state-cooperative-bank-exam-analysis-of-assistant-clerk

Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant Prelims Exam Analysis:

Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant (Clerk) is one of the most sought-after recruitment in the banking industry. Several aspirants are burning candles at both ends to get a seat for themselves in this prestigious bank. Many students appeared for this exam and the competition will be very tough this time. Therefore, it is necessary that one gets aware about the type of questions being asked in the exam so that you get an idea about how to plan your strategy to attempt the questions in the exam and manage your time accordingly.

In this exam, there is the composite time of 60 minutes in the Prelims Exam, its important for all banking aspirants to go through the review once. Exam analysis and review can help the aspirants who are yet to appear in upcoming banking or insurance exam to get an idea of the difficulty level and expected the pattern of questions in Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and English Language sections. The examination held in this shift was of Easy to Moderate level. The order of occurrence of sections was English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning.

Bihar State Co-operative Bank Assistant Exam Analysis 2019: Section-wise Analysis-



SubjectGood AttemptTime
English Language16-19
Reasoning Ability29-33
Quantitative Aptitude23-27
Total73-7860 Minutes


English Language (Easy-Moderate)

English section was also of easy to moderate level. There was one set of Reading Comprehension with 8 questions out of which 3 question was of identifying the antonym and synonym. The passage of the RC was based on story of a King. 

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Reading Comprehension 08Easy-Moderate
Error Detection 05Easy-Moderate
Single Word Filler04Easy
Cloze Test05Easy-Moderate
Sentence Reangement03Easy-Moderate
Phrase Replacement 05Moderate
Total30Easy-Moderate

Reasoning (Easy)

The level of reasoning was of Easy. There were 3 sets of puzzles and Seating Arrangement, following are the types
  • Circular seating arrangement (8 people facing inside)
  • Floor Based Puzzle (8 Floor, 8 People)
  • Linear Seating Arrangement (Facing North)
TopicsNo. of QuestionsLevel
Puzzles and Seating Arrangement15Easy
Syllogism05Easy
Direction Sence and Distance03Easy
Alphabet Based02Easy
Inequalities 05Easy
Coding-Decoding05Easy
Total35Easy 

Quantitative Aptitude (Easy-Moderate)

The level of Quantitative Aptitude section was Easy to Moderate.  One can easily attempt questions if they have practised well. DI questions based on a Tabular DI in this slot.

TopicNo. of QuestionsLevel
Data Interpretation05Easy-Moderate
Missing Number Series05Easy
Quadratic Equation05Easy
Simplification10Easy
Arithmetic Word Problems (Profit and Loss, Problem on Ages, SI & CI etc)10Moderate
Total35Easy-Moderate


Keep up your calm and confidence and you'll surely do well in the exam!

Share Your exam experience, questions asked and review with us at blogger@adda247.com



      

All the best for the next slot !!
    

Cloze Test for IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019

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English Language Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains 

IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.


Watch Video Solutions Here







Directions (1-10): Given below is a passage filled with the blanks. Each blank is then followed by five choices and each choice has two options. You must choose the option in which both the words of the option fit in the blank given. 

Q1. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.

Indicative/Characteristic
Penniless/poor
Copious/Profuse
Immoral/Wicked
Intimidating/Menacing
Solution:
The most appropriate option to be filled in the blank is option (c).
Copious means abundant in supply or quantity.
Profuse means (especially of something offered or discharged) very plentiful; abundant.
As the next blank talks about the word amounts these two are the appropriate words.
Indicative- serving as a sign or indication of something.
Penniless means having no money; very poor.
Immoral not conforming to accepted standards of morality.
Wicked- evil or morally wrong.
Intimidating- frightening or overawing (someone), especially in order to make them do what one wants.
Menacing- suggesting the presence of danger; threatening.

Q2. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Bliss/Elation
Travesty/Distortion
Complacency/Contentment
Avaricious/Materialistic
Ceremonious/Solemn
Solution:
Option (b) is the most appropriate choice to be filled in the blank.
Travesty means a false, absurd, or distorted representation of something.
Distortion means the action of giving a misleading account or impression.
Bliss means the action of giving a misleading account or impression.
Elation means great happiness and exhilaration.
Complacency means uncritical satisfaction with oneself or one's achievements.
Contentment means satisfaction.
Avaricious means having or showing an extreme greed for wealth or material gain.
Ceremonious means relating or appropriate to grand and formal occasions.
Solemn means formal and dignified.

Q3. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Soars/Escalates
Infers/Chokes
Subdues/Daunts
Standardizes/Assimilates
Franks/Blazes
Solution:
The most suitable option is option (a).
Soars means increases rapidly above the usual level.
Escalates means increases rapidly. As the sentence is talking about the population , we can only talk about the increase or decrease of it. Hence it is the most appropriate answer.
Infers means deduce or conclude (something) from evidence and reasoning rather than from explicit statements.
Chokes means suffocates.
Subdues means overcome, quieten, or bring under control (a feeling or person).
Daunt means make (someone) feel intimidated or apprehensive.
Assimilates means take in and understand fully (information or ideas).
Blazes means shines.

Q4. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Engrossing/Charming
Lush/Thriving
Sodden/Streaming
Arid/Barren
Cursed/Mesmerizing
Solution:
Option (d) is the answer as the word before it is dry and thus the next word that must follow it that is describing the plains must be arid which means having little or no rain; too dry or barren to support vegetation.
Barren means too poor to produce much or any vegetation.
Engrossing means absorbing all the attention or interest of.
Lush means (of vegetation, especially grass) growing luxuriantly.
Thriving means prosperous and growing; flourishing.
Sodden means saturated with liquid, especially water; soaked through.
Streaming means running or flowing in a continuous current in a specified direction.
Cursed means invoke or use a curse against.
Mesmerizing means capturing the complete attention of (someone); transfixing.

Q5. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Melodious/harmonious
Affluent/Opulent
Lonely/Secluded
Affluent/Effluent
Involved/Precluded
Solution:
Option (b) is the apt choice to be filled in the blank. As it is mentioned in the blank that Produce wasted in ‘what type of’ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility. Europe and U.S. are affluent and opulent countries thus meaning having a great deal of money; wealthy. Option (d) cannot be used as it has effluent as the choice too along with affluent which means liquid waste or sewage discharged into a river or the sea.
Melodious means pleasant-sounding.
Harmonious means free from disagreement or dissent.
Secluded means concealed.
Precluded means prevent from happening; make impossible.

Q6. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Branding/Stamping
Composing/Devising
Squandering/Dissipating
Inducing/Prompting
Replacing/substituting
Solution:
Option (c) is the most appropriate choice to be filled in the blank.
Squandering means wasting in a reckless or foolish manner.
Dissipating means wasting or frittering away.
Stamping means walking with heavy or forceful steps.
Devising means planning or inventing (a complex procedure, system, or mechanism) by careful thought.
Inducing means succeeding in persuading or leading (someone) to do something.
Prompting means causing or bringing about.

Q7. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Compensating/Reimbursing
Superficial/Exterior
Howling/Yelping
Fragile/Insubstantial
Potent/Vigorous
Solution:
Option (e) is the most suitable choice for the answer. Methane and carbon dioxide are compared by the use of superlative degree. So only words potent and vigorous fit in the blank.
Potent means having great power, influence, or effect.
Vigorous means strong, healthy, and full of energy.
Compensating means repaying.
Reimbursing means refunding , repaying.
Superficial means existing or occurring at or on the surface.
Howling means weeping and crying out loudly.
Yelping means screaming.
Fragile means (of an object) easily broken or damaged.
Insubstantial means lacking strength and solidity.

Q8. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Humanitarian/Benevolent
Inhumane/Brutal
Serene/Placid
Violent/intemperate
Dignified/Noble
Solution:
Option (a) is the most appropriate choice to be filled in the blank. When it comes to concern it can only be humanitarian or benevolent.
Humanitarian means concerned with or seeking to promote human welfare.
Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly.
Inhumane means without compassion for misery or suffering; cruel.
Serene means calm, peaceful, and untroubled; tranquil.
Placid means not easily upset or excited.
Intemperate means having or showing a lack of self-control; immoderate.
Dignified means having or showing a composed or serious manner that is worthy of respect.

Q9. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Servitude/domination
Predestined/destined
Lacking/Missing
Lightning/Sparkling
Rising/Augmenting
Solution:
Option (b) is the most suitable option to be filled in the blank. Predestined and destined are the same which mean destine (someone) for a particular fate or purpose.
Servitude means the state of being a slave or completely subject to someone more powerful.
Domination means the exercise of power or influence over someone or something, or the state of being so controlled.
Lightning(adj.) means very quick.
Sparkling(adj.) means shining brightly with flashes of light.
Augmenting means making (something) greater by adding to it; increasing.

Q10. The _____ (1) __________ amounts of forgotten and disregarded food that are tossed mindlessly into our landfills are a global _______(2)__________ of massive proportions. And the higher the population _________ (3) _________, the more surplus food is produced. Between 2009 and 2030, the World Bank estimates that the demand for food will increase by 50% as the global population grows, creating a positive feedback loop resulting in further waste. Acidification and salinization resulting from inappropriate use of nitrogen fertilizers and the removal of beneficial vegetation destroy nutrient cycles within the soil and cause once rich landscapes to become dry, _______(4)___________ plains; unfit to house life (“Salinity and acidity”). Produce wasted in _______(5)_________ countries such as Europe and the United States lead to unneeded loss of soil fertility and unnecessary expenditures of fresh water. The developed world in particular speeds the process of global warming by _________ (6)___________ such large amounts of food. Food waste is buried in landfills, where it decomposes “into toxic effluent and methane, a greenhouse gas twenty-one times more ______ (7) __________ than carbon dioxide”. While disposal and waste of food is a problem of global concern, unethical food waste is not only a _________ (8) ________ concern; it is also an economic and environmental problem. The excessive amounts of food wasted could feed millions of hungry people. Further complicating the problem are the unseen inputs that are necessary to create food that is _______ (9)_________ for the trash. Producing food that is squandered also wastes important finite resources such as oil, freshwater, soil fertility, land, various ecosystem services as well as undocumented human labor. Understanding the true price tag that accompanies food waste is the first step toward creating a ________ (10)_______ food system.
Preaching/Sermon
Dirty/Untidy
Sustainable/Endurable
Characteristic/Feature
Scent/Misty
Solution:
Option (c) is the most appropriate choice to be filled in the blank.
Sustainable means able to be maintained at a certain rate or level.
Endurable means able to be endured; bearable. These two words will come in blank because the statement talks about the food system. The food system can be sustainable or endurable that is which can be maintained at some level.
Preaching means giving moral advice to someone in a pompously self-righteous way.
Sermon means a long or tedious piece of admonition or reproof; a lecture.
Scent means a distinctive smell, especially one that is pleasant.
Misty means full of, covered with, or accompanied by mist.

Directions (11-15): In the passage given below there are blanks which are numbered from 11 to 15. They are to be filled with the options given below the passage against each of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence without altering its meaning. . If none of the words given in options fits in, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer choice. 

Q11. Farm indebtedness is the outcome of ....(11)..... problems. Marginal farmers comprise more than 80 per cent of the farm population, work on half a hectare for a meagre produce that fetches a .....(12)...... price. This is what drives indebtedness and a one-time waiver will offer nothing by way of a sustainable solution. Prices and costs must be addressed simultaneously as providing better returns without addressing the reasons for indebtedness will be ....(13)..... . The increased returns will be sucked out by debt servicing and ....(14)..... the debt trap. Also, assured better returns through Minimum Support Price is a travesty because India does not have a system in place to procure from most farmers, certainly not in the east and north-east. Assam saw no more than 24,000 MT of rice being procured; the rest of the north-east .....(15)...... worse, while West Bengal’s and Bihar’s shocking procurement infrastructure just cannot deliver MSPs to paddy farmers.

must
multidimension
curtail
myriad
Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
Myriad: countless or extremely great in number.

Q12. Farm indebtedness is the outcome of ....(11)..... problems. Marginal farmers comprise more than 80 per cent of the farm population, work on half a hectare for a meagre produce that fetches a .....(12)...... price. This is what drives indebtedness and a one-time waiver will offer nothing by way of a sustainable solution. Prices and costs must be addressed simultaneously as providing better returns without addressing the reasons for indebtedness will be ....(13)..... . The increased returns will be sucked out by debt servicing and ....(14)..... the debt trap. Also, assured better returns through Minimum Support Price is a travesty because India does not have a system in place to procure from most farmers, certainly not in the east and north-east. Assam saw no more than 24,000 MT of rice being procured; the rest of the north-east .....(15)...... worse, while West Bengal’s and Bihar’s shocking procurement infrastructure just cannot deliver MSPs to paddy farmers.
pathetic
Both (a) and (c)
comical
cheerful
negligent
Solution:
Pathetic: miserably inadequate.

Q13. Farm indebtedness is the outcome of ....(11)..... problems. Marginal farmers comprise more than 80 per cent of the farm population, work on half a hectare for a meagre produce that fetches a .....(12)...... price. This is what drives indebtedness and a one-time waiver will offer nothing by way of a sustainable solution. Prices and costs must be addressed simultaneously as providing better returns without addressing the reasons for indebtedness will be ....(13)..... . The increased returns will be sucked out by debt servicing and ....(14)..... the debt trap. Also, assured better returns through Minimum Support Price is a travesty because India does not have a system in place to procure from most farmers, certainly not in the east and north-east. Assam saw no more than 24,000 MT of rice being procured; the rest of the north-east .....(15)...... worse, while West Bengal’s and Bihar’s shocking procurement infrastructure just cannot deliver MSPs to paddy farmers.
useful
emptied
futile
Both (a) and (c)
fruitful
Solution:
Futile: incapable of producing any useful result; pointless.

Q14. Farm indebtedness is the outcome of ....(11)..... problems. Marginal farmers comprise more than 80 per cent of the farm population, work on half a hectare for a meagre produce that fetches a .....(12)...... price. This is what drives indebtedness and a one-time waiver will offer nothing by way of a sustainable solution. Prices and costs must be addressed simultaneously as providing better returns without addressing the reasons for indebtedness will be ....(13)..... . The increased returns will be sucked out by debt servicing and ....(14)..... the debt trap. Also, assured better returns through Minimum Support Price is a travesty because India does not have a system in place to procure from most farmers, certainly not in the east and north-east. Assam saw no more than 24,000 MT of rice being procured; the rest of the north-east .....(15)...... worse, while West Bengal’s and Bihar’s shocking procurement infrastructure just cannot deliver MSPs to paddy farmers.
break
deepen
highlighting
Both (b) and (c)
excavating
Solution:
Deepen: make or become deep or deeper.

Q15. Farm indebtedness is the outcome of ....(11)..... problems. Marginal farmers comprise more than 80 per cent of the farm population, work on half a hectare for a meagre produce that fetches a .....(12)...... price. This is what drives indebtedness and a one-time waiver will offer nothing by way of a sustainable solution. Prices and costs must be addressed simultaneously as providing better returns without addressing the reasons for indebtedness will be ....(13)..... . The increased returns will be sucked out by debt servicing and ....(14)..... the debt trap. Also, assured better returns through Minimum Support Price is a travesty because India does not have a system in place to procure from most farmers, certainly not in the east and north-east. Assam saw no more than 24,000 MT of rice being procured; the rest of the north-east .....(15)...... worse, while West Bengal’s and Bihar’s shocking procurement infrastructure just cannot deliver MSPs to paddy farmers.
along
fared
managed
survival
Both (a) and (d)
Solution:
Fared: happen; turn out.

               


  
    

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DAY 9 | Practice Marathon for IBPS Clerk Mains: REVISION | Quant, Reasoning & English

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Dear Readers,


Bankersadda brings to you the Revision of DAY-9 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon. In case you've missed the DAY-9 quizzes and LIVE DISCUSSIONS you still can watch the video solutions and attempt the quizzes.


Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF



Practice Marathon: Reasoning 

Practice Marathon: English Language 

Topic Covered in DAY 9: Sentence Completion



Practice Marathon: Quantitative Aptitude 





Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019

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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 4th January 2019

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2019

Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018"  with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 9 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.

Watch the Video Solutions Here




Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below- 

Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, U, V, W, and X are seating in two parallel rows. U, V, W, and X are seating in row 1 and facing towards North. A, B, C, and D are seating in row 2 and facing south. They all go for a vacation in four different months of the same year from January to April (not necessarily in same order) on dates i.e. 22, 18 of every given month. Only 1 person goes on each day. Each person of row 1 faces the person of row 2.

U faces the person who is an immediate neighbour of C. U goes for a vacation in April. X is not an immediate neighbor of U in seating arrangement. Only one person goes for a vacation between U and D. A goes for a vacation in March. Only one person goes for a vacation between C and V. The one who goes for a vacation on 18th January is not an immediate neighbour of X. D doesn’t go for a vacation in January and B doesn’t go for a vacation in April. U goes for a vacation before X. No two persons can sit adjacent to each other who go for a vacation in same month except the persons who go for a vacation in March. The persons who go on February don’t sit at extreme end. C goes for a vacation on 18th February and sits second to the left of D V is not an immediate neighbour of the one who goes for a vacation on February.

Q1. U goes for a vacation on which of the following date?

22nd April
18th March
22nd March
18th April
None of these
Solution:


Q2. The one who goes on 22nd February faces which of the following person?
D
A
C
B
None of these
Solution:

Q3. Who among the following goes for a vacation on 18th March?
A
D
C
B
None of these
Solution:

Q4. Who among the following sits immediate left of the one who goes for a vacation on 22nd April?
C
V
U
None of these
W
Solution:

Q5. Who among the following faces D?
W
X
U
V
None of these
Solution:


Directions (6-10): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:

853    581    747    474    398

Q6. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest in the new arrangement of numbers?

853
581
747
398
474
Solution:
474

Q7. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left to right, which of the following will be the sum of all the three digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
17
15
14
13
19
Solution:
(5 + 8 + 1) = 14

Q8. What will be the resultant of third digit of the lowest number is multiplied with the second digit of the highest number?
27
40
20
45
19
Solution:
8 * 5 = 40

Q9. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, how many even numbers will be formed?
None
One
Two
Three
Four
Solution:
Two

Q10. If one is added to the first digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?
None
One
Two
Three
Four
Solution:
Two

Directions (11-13): In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as: 

Q11. I. It is the aim of the city’s civic authority to get the air pollution reduced by 20% in the next two months.

II. The number of asthma cases in the city is constantly increasing.
If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
If both the statements I and II are independent causes
Solution:
The increase in number of asthma cases must have alerted the authorities to take action to control air pollution that triggers the disease.

Q12. I. The police authority has recently caught a group of house breakers.
II. The citizens group in the locality has started night vigil in the area.
If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
If both the statements I and II are independent causes
Solution:
Both the statements are clearly backed by a common cause, which is clearly an increase in the number of thefts in the locality.

Q13. I. The university authority has instructed all the colleges under its jurisdiction to ban use of all phones inside the college premises.
II. Majority of the teachers of the colleges signed a joint petition to the university complaining the disturbances caused by cell phone ring-tones inside the classrooms.
If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
If both the statements I and II are independent causes
Solution:
Clearly, the university’s decision came as a sequel to the complaint received by it from the college teachers against use of mobile phones in the college premises.

Directions (14-15): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ argument(s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument(s) and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question. 

Q14. Statements: 

Should all the indirect taxes in India be combined into a single tax on all commodities?
Arguments: 
I. Yes. This will considerably simplify the tax collection mechanism and the cost of collecting tax will also reduce.
II. Yes. The manufacturers and traders will be benefited by this which in turn will boost tax collection.
III. No. No other country has adopted such system.
None is strong
Only I and III are strong
Only II is strong
Only II and III are strong
None of these
Solution:
Only I and II are strong.
Clearly, Both I and II hold strong, as they provide very convincing reasons, for a single tax system would help get rid of multifarious taxes on a product. Besides, the idea of imitation of other countries in the implementation of a certain policy holds no relevance. So, argument III does not hold strong.

Q15. Statements: 
Should trade unions be banned completely?
Arguments: 
I. Yes. Workers can concentrate on production.
II. No. This is the only way through which employees can put their demands before the management.
III. Yes. Employees get their illegal demands fulfilled through these unions. IV. No. Trade unions are not banned in other economically advanced countries.
Only I is strong
Only II is strong
Only I and II are strong
Only I, II and III are strong
None of these
Solution:
Clearly, trade unions provide a common platform for the workers to voice their demands and protests and thus ensure that they are not subdued or exploited. So, argument II holds strong, while I and III do not. Besides, the idea of imitation of other countries in the implementation of a certain policy, holds no relevance. So, argument IV also not hold strong.

                                  








         

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IBPS Clerk Pre Result 2018 To Be Declared Till Evening | Check Result Here

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Dear Aspirants, 

ibps-clerk-result

IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 Result 

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection or IBPS will declare the result of Online Preliminary Exam for the post of Clerk till evening. Candidates can check their result from the link given below. Online Preliminary Exam was held on 08th, 09th and 15th of December 2018 and the Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on 20th of January 2019 (Sunday).



You may also like to Read: 

         

All the Best BA'ians for IBPS Clerk Main!!


Sunday Challenge for IBPS Clerk Mains: Quantitative Aptitude Practice Set

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The Main Examination of IBPS Clerk is scheduled to be held on 20th of January 2019. There is a provision of sectional timing for this exam and you will be given 45 minutes to do Quantitative Aptitude Section. We all know that one cannot ace a competitive exam if she hasn't practiced with sample mocks before the real examination.

When it's about online competitive examinations, mere knowledge of the subject wouldn't do, one has to be high in accuracy and she should be able to attempt the maximum number of questions in the minimum time period. And this only comes with practice. So, attempt the Sunday Challenge (Quantitative Aptitude Practice Set) that is being provided by Adda247 on 6th of January with all the banking aspirants who are in this toilsome competition against you.  It is a sectional test of Quantitative Aptitude Section, apply the Coupon Code: SUNDAY and there you go.


This test will not only help you analyze how well prepared you are to face this examination but will get you acquainted with your weaknesses as well. Work on your weaknesses and try making use of your strengths in the most prolific manner. And when you know how to balance the two in the best way possible, you already have the key to success. All the best to everyone who will appear for IBPS Clerk Mains Examination on 20th of January 2019.



SBI Clerk Waiting List to be Out on 20th Jan

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Dear Readers,


According to an RTI filed by an aspirant, we have found this information that the waiting list for SBI Junior Associates would be released on 20.01.2019. Source- RTI Status Image from FB. You can check the image below:



         

Conjunctions: English Language Notes for Bank and Other Competitive Exams

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Study Notes are really essential and effective while preparing for any competitive exam. We all have been making and studying through study notes since our childhood. Its one of the most important steps of preparation and a very effective tool for last minute revision. Your mind collects data of random details in the form of keywords and memory maps visualized during preparation. Jotting down main phrases & keywords, making memory maps and highlighting important facts help one speed up the learning process.  

Conjunction

Definition: A conjunction is a word which connects phrases, words, clauses or sentences to make a complex sentence and also brings about relationship between the elements which are thus joined.  There are three different kinds of conjunctions--coordinating, subordinating, and correlative.

1. Coordinating conjunctions: Coordinating conjunctions are the words that connect individual words, phrases, and independent clauses of equal rank or importance.

and, or, but, so, nor, for, yet, also, either….or, neither…nor, etc are some of the Coordinating Conjunctions.

Further Coordinating conjunction can be divided into four parts:

(i) Adversative: To indicate contrast between two statements.
Examples: still, but, only, yet, whereas, while, nevertheless, etc 

Example Sentences:
  • It was very hot, still I have not switched on fan.
  • He hates me, yet I love her.

(ii) Cumulative or Copulative conjunctions: To add one statement or fact to another. 
Examples: both….and, not only….but also, as well as, too, also, moreover etc 

Example Sentences:
  • The principle as well as the director has accepted to conduct the examination next week.
  • Shanky is both smart and brave.

(iii) Disjunctive or Alternative conjunctions: To indicate choices between two statements. 
Examples: neither…nor, either….or, else, neither, nor, otherwise, etc  

Example Sentences:
  • Amar will be either in the room or on the roof.
  • He is good neither at games nor at studies.

(iv) Illative: To express inference in the sentence.
Examples:  for, so, yet, hence etc

Example Sentences:
  • I know you must be tired, so i will let you rest.
  • Rekha is honest and amiable, hence Raj is revered.

2. Correlative Conjunctions:  In this, a pair of conjunctions must be used together. You have to use both of them in different places in a sentence to make them work. 
Rule: When conjunctions are used as correlatives, each of the correlated words should be placed immediately before the words to be connected.
Examples: Either—or, Neither—nor, Both—and, Though—yet, Whether—or, Not only—but also

Example Sentences:
  • She visited not only Kolkata but also Jaipur. 
  • Deepak can do either technical support or development.

3. Subordinating Conjunctions: Used to join a clause to another in order to get full meaning. It joins a subordinate (dependent) clause to a main (independent) clause.
Main Clause + Subordinate Clause
Subordinate Clause + Main Clause

Subordinate clause cannot stand alone as a sentence as it does not provide complete meaning. It is generally depends on main clause. A main clause contains a subject and a verb. A main clause can stands alone as a sentence as it can provide you complete meaning.

Examples:  In order that, on condition that, even if, so that, provided that, as though, as well as, as if, etc.

Example Sentences:
  • She had died before the doctor arrived.
  • Although it is raining, it is too hot today.
  • We played cricket while pitch was little wet.

Adda247 Latest eBooks for Bank Exams

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Dear Students, the year 2019 is upon all of us with great opportunities in the banking sector. Most of you would be wondering if what could be the best way to grab these opportunities without letting them slip through your fingers. So, Adda247 is here with latest pattern ebooks to make learning easier for you. Adda247 provides banking aspirants across the country with copious elucidatory study material to help you ace all the upcoming competitive exams. With a wide range of ebooks, Adda247 provides you all with a wide range of books that explain the core concepts in a way that you will find nowhere else. Here is the list of must-have ebooks for the upcoming banking examinations:

  • Complete guidelines to crack Personal Interview of Bank Exams.
  • Real Interview experiences of candidates who appeared for PI in the previous years.
  • Tricky Interview Questions with their best answers.
  • Do's and Don’ts for Interview.
  • Banking Awareness for PI with the complete theory on banking.
  • Mock Interview Questions and Exercises.
  • Current Affairs based Exercises.



  • Quantitative Aptitude: 800+ questions 
  • Reasoning Ability: 550+  questions
  • English language: 550+ questions
  • Latest pattern questions based on 2018 and 2017 examinations
  • 100 most important banking awareness questions
  • Step by step approach to solving lengthy and difficult questions




  • 500+ Topic wise Questions with Detailed Solutions
  • Important Concepts based on Latest Pattern
  • Questions Based on Current Topics






  •    600+ Questions with Detailed Solutions
  • Divided into different levels of difficulty
  • Important Concepts based on the Latest Pattern
  • Important Tips & Notes for better comprehension
  • Questions Based on Current Topics




  •   Banking Awareness one-liners questions
  • Incorporates more than 500 + one-liner questions
  • Available in the English Language



Check this out...

  

IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package

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Dear Students, every year IBPS conducts so many banking examinations to carry out the recruitment processes for employees at different scales. When it comes to IBPS Clerk Examination, one has to go through two levels of examinations before she gets a job in a Public Sector Bank of India. Mains examination, being the second and final step of this examination for IBPS Clerk, is comparatively difficult and hard to crack. To help you attempt the IBPS Clerk Mains examinations with poise, Adda247 brings to you high-level test series, "IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package" for Rs. 499.

Mains exams do play a major role in a candidate's final selections as the marks of mains exam are counted in the preparation of final merit list. How you perform in the mains examination can make a big difference in your final results, in a good way or in a bad way. Many of you must be wondering what could be the best way to perform to the best of your ability during the mains level of IBPS Clerk examination.

You can only manage to attempt the maximum number of questions in the examination if you have practiced with mock tests before the real examination. That's the reason why Adda247 comes up with this test series for mains examination in which you will get 10 Full Length Mocks with video solutions, 15 Section wise Practice sets ( 5 Reasoning, 5 Quant & 5 English), 2 IBPS Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2017 & 2016), 2 SBI Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018 & 2017), 2 RRB Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018 & 2017), 1 IBPS PO Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018), Banking Awareness eBook and Static Awareness eBook .

We, team Adda247, try to aid you with a platform that helps you succeed beyond the terms papers and standardized tests. So many competitive exams are queued up to be held in the upcoming days and a regular practice with speed tests is a must if you really want to get through them. And practicing with Adda247 IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package will definitely help you score the maximum marks in mains exam of IBPS Clerk  2018.

Salient Features of IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package

  • Available in English & Hindi Medium
  • Accessible on the Adda247 online store and Adda247 mobile application
  • Detailed solutions
  • Video Solutions of  10 Full-Length Mocks
  • Bimonthly current affairs Practice sets (July to Dec 2018)
  • Detailed Analysis of the attempted tests (All India Rank, comparison with toppers etc.)
The important features of Adda247 test series that make them different from other test series are; the difficulty level of the tests, accuracy of the questions and solutions being provided, the number of tests being provided in the available packages and that they incorporate a variety of problems that match the level of frequently asked questions, previous year questions, and fresh pattern questions.
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