The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!
National News
1. Parliament Passes Right Of Children To Free And Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018
i. The Indian Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018 that seeks to do away with the no-detention policy in schools. The legislation is significant as it brings accountability in the elementary education system.
ii. The Bill seeks to amend the Right to Education (RTE) Act to abolish the “no-detention” policy in schools. Under the current provisions of the Act, no student can be detained up to class VIII.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
Minister of Human Resource Development: Prakash Javadekar.
2. Parliament Passes National Council For Teacher Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018
i. The Indian Parliament passed the National Council for Teacher Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018, following the approval of the Rajya Sabha. The Lok Sabha had already passed the Bill. The Bill seeks to amend the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) Act, 1993.
ii. The bill aims to grant retrospective recognition to Central and State institutions which had conducted teacher education courses without approval by the Council. This will ensure that the future of about 17 thousand students having degrees from such institutions is secured.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Prakash Javadeker is the present HRD Minister of India.
International News
3. Trump Signs Asia Reassurance Initiative Act Into Law
i. U.S. President Donald J. Trump signed into law the Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA), which passed the U.S. Senate earlier in December. According to the White House, the act establishes a multifaceted U.S. strategy to increase U.S. security, economic interests, and values in the Indo-Pacific region.
ii. Specifically, the ARIA will authorize $1.5 billion in spending for a range of U.S. programs in East and Southeast Asia and develop a long-term strategic vision and a comprehensive, multifaceted, and principled United States policy for the Indo-Pacific region, and for other purposes.
i. Arunima Sinha, the first female amputee to have conquered Mt Everest, created yet another record as she became world's first woman amputee to climb Mount Vinson, the highest peak in Antarctica.
ii. Apart from Mount Everest, the 30-year-old has climbed the highest peaks of fivecontinents and plans to do so in all seven.
Banking/Economy News
5. HDFC MF Surpasses ICICI Prudential MF to Become Largest AMC in India
i. HDFC Mutual Fund has pipped ICICI Prudential MF to become the country's largest asset management company after a gap of over two years.
ii. As of December-end, HDFC MF manages assets to the tune of Rs 3.35 lakh crore, while those of ICICI Prudential MF stood at Rs 3.08 lakh crore, as per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi).
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Mr. Milind Barve is the Managing Director of HDFC MF.
It headquarters in Mumbai.
6. Syndicate Bank And SBI Life Insurance Signed Bancassurance Pact
i. Syndicate Bank and SBI Life Insurance signed a bancassurance pact aiming to offer a comprehensive financial planning solution to its customers. The pact was signed between Syndicate Bank MD & CEO, Mrutyunjay Mahapatra and MD and CEO of SBI Life, Sanjeev Nautiyal. ii. Through the pact, Syndicate Bank will provide penetration in the market with its 3,000branches and SBI Life’s diverse range of protection, wealth creation and savings insurance products will be brought to the table to the customers.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
Syndicate Bank Headquarters: Manipal, Karnataka, Tagline: Faithful and Friendly.
7. SEBI Allows Custodial Services In Commodity Market
i. Markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has allowed custodial services in the commodity derivatives market. The move is aimed at enabling the participation of institutional investors such as mutual funds and portfolio managers in the commodity derivatives market. ii. Under the new framework, existing custodians will be permitted to add commodities as an asset class and provide physical delivery of both the securities and commodities.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
i. Renowned Bengali writer and Sahitya Akademi awardee Dibyendu Palit passes away due to age-related ailments. He was 79-year-old. ii. Palit was conferred the Sahitya Akademi for his novel ‘Anubhab’ in 1998. He was awarded the ‘Bankim Purashkar’ for ‘Dheu’ in 1990 and ‘Ananda Purashkar’ in 1984 for ‘Sahojoddha’.
NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.
Directions (1-15): In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space. Below each such sentence, there are five options with one word each. Fill up the blank with the word that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q1. The daughter was constantly looking for ---------------------- from her parents by following the rules and getting good grades.
denying
decline
attraction
affirmation
affluent
Solution:
‘affirmation’ is the correct word here. Affirmation means consent.
Q2. There was no way to -------------------- whether or not the Earth was the center of the universe centuries ago, as we could only observe the stars from Earth to begin with.
calculate
estimation
validate
resonate
animate
Solution:
‘validate’ is the correct word here.
Q3. If his words are not enough, the evidence will ---------------------- his claim.
corroborate
mesmerize
acclaim
accomplishing
program
Solution:
‘corroborate’ is the correct word here. Corroborate means confirm or give support to (a statement, theory, or finding).
Q4. The world’s most elite soldiers must undergo the most extreme and ------------------- training programs in the military.
grueling
rule
tiring
irritating
powerful
Solution:
‘grueling’ is the correct word here. Grueling means extremely tiring and demanding.
Q5. The children were expected to ------------------ the situation and make the best of it even if they didn’t enjoy working in the garden.
regard
embrace
disregard
manipulation
guide
Solution:
‘embrace’ is the correct word here. Embrace means to appreciate.
Q6. My aunt received an award for being a ------------------- to the public school.
destined
benefactor
guiding
book
None of the above
Solution:
‘benefactor’ is the correct word here. Benefactor is a person who gives money or other help to a person or cause.
Q7. Wind turbines have a high level of --------------------- because wind is an endless resource.
rigidity
sustainability
resources
needs
None of the above
Solution:
‘sustainability’ is the correct word here.
Q8. Thanks to the increased ------------------- of the football program, the school can soon build a new stadium.
patriotism
patronage
supporting
imports
exports
Solution:
‘patronage’ is the correct word here.
Q9. The salesman offered his assistance but we told him we were just --------------------.
browsing
dance
random
abandoning
gone
Solution:
‘browsing’ is the correct word here. Browsing means to survey in a casual way.
Q10. The mayor used city funds to ----------------------- his personal projects and was eventually charged with theft.
gain
rope
group
randomize
subsidize
Solution:
‘subsidize’ is the correct word here. Subsidize means to support financially.
Q11. A sudden snowstorm trapped several of the -------------------- residents inside their homes.
shock
surprised
mesmerized
terrorize
ignite
Solution:
‘surprised’ is the correct word here.
Q12. --------------------- the athlete was taking a strong medication, he left the game because he was not able to inure himself to the pain.
Though
Therefore
Although
Before
Instead
Solution:
‘although’ is the correct word here.
Q13. After winning several medals in the Olympics, the handicapped athlete became an ------------------- of training programs for the disabled.
antidote
adverb
supporting
defender
exponent
Solution:
‘exponent’ is the correct word here. Exponent here means an advocate or lawyer.
Q14. When building the small rocket, the scientist had to decide which ------------------------- he would use to launch the spacecraft.
matter
thought
advocate
propellant
solidification
Solution:
‘propellant’ is the correct word here. Propellant is used in reference to a substance in science.
Q15. --------------------- difficult math problems with hands-on learning can create an interactive way to make Algebra more interesting to learn.
Between
Adjoining
Coupling
Among
Deciding
Solution:
‘coupling’ is the correct word here. Coupling means to join.
Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Robin, Priya, Kevin, Monu, Sem, Tom and Rohan are seven friends. Each of them studies in different classes 3, 5, 8, 9, 6, 2, and 11 (not necessarily in the same order). They like different colours Red, Yellow, Green, Pink, Brown, Black and White but not necessarily in the same order. Kevin likes Red and does not study in 5th and in 2nd class. Sem studies in 6th Class and likes Brown. The one, who likes Black studies in 11th Class. Monu studies in 3rd Class. Rohan likes White. Robin does not study in 11th Class. The one, who likes Green studies in 5th Class. Priya studies in 9th Class and does not like Pink and Green. Q1. In which Class does Rohan study?
9th
2nd
11th
6th
None of these
Solution:
Q2. Which of following colour does Robin like?
Green
Pink
Red
Yellow
None of these
Solution:
Q3. Which of the following colour does Monu like?
Yellow
Green
Pink
Black
None of these
Solution:
Q4. In which of the following Class does Robin study?
3rd
9th
2nd
11th
None of these
Solution:
Q5. Which of the following combinations is correct?
Sem- Pink
Rohan -Black
Priya - Green
Tom - Black
None of these.
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: topography 56 bearing 29 laptop 31 66 98 savage delusion 13 traditions Step I: delusion topography 56 bearing 29 laptop 31 66 savage 13 traditions 98 Step II: delusion traditions topography 56 bearing 29 laptop 66 savage 13 98 31 Step III: delusion traditions bearing topography 56 29 laptop savage 13 98 31 66 Step IV: delusion traditions bearing savage topography 56 laptop 13 98 31 66 29 Step V: delusion traditions bearing savage topography laptop 13 98 31 66 29 56 Step VI: delusion traditions bearing savage topography laptop 98 31 66 29 56 13 Answer the following questions based on the following input:- Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Q6. Which of the following will be the penultimate step?
Step VI
Step V
Step IV
Step III
None of these
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. As a first step let’s first understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the final output you will observe the following: (i) The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. (ii) The words are arranged in descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step. (iii) While the numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number first, followed by prime number alternatively.
Now lets take the arrangement given in the Question Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Step I: demotion rock 31 rain 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 Step II: demotion rain rock 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 31 Step III: demotion rain takes rock 13 40 stock worship 29 86 31 72 Step IV: demotion rain takes worship rock 13 40 stock 86 31 72 29 Step V: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 13 86 31 72 29 40 Step VI: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 86 31 72 29 40 13
Q7. What will be the position of ‘stock’ in the last but one step?
Seventh from the left
Seventh from the right
Fourth from the left
Fifth from the left
None of these
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. As a first step let’s first understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the final output you will observe the following: (i) The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. (ii) The words are arranged in descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step. (iii) While the numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number first, followed by prime number alternatively.
Now lets take the arrangement given in the Question Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Step I: demotion rock 31 rain 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 Step II: demotion rain rock 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 31 Step III: demotion rain takes rock 13 40 stock worship 29 86 31 72 Step IV: demotion rain takes worship rock 13 40 stock 86 31 72 29 Step V: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 13 86 31 72 29 40 Step VI: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 86 31 72 29 40 13
Q8. Which word/number would be the fourth from the right end in Step IV?
stock
86
40
worship
None of these
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. As a first step let’s first understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the final output you will observe the following: (i) The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. (ii) The words are arranged in descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step. (iii) While the numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number first, followed by prime number alternatively.
Now lets take the arrangement given in the Question Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Step I: demotion rock 31 rain 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 Step II: demotion rain rock 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 31 Step III: demotion rain takes rock 13 40 stock worship 29 86 31 72 Step IV: demotion rain takes worship rock 13 40 stock 86 31 72 29 Step V: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 13 86 31 72 29 40 Step VI: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 86 31 72 29 40 13
Q9. After how many steps no further rearrangement of words is possible?
Five
Four
Six
Seven
Eight
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. As a first step let’s first understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the final output you will observe the following: (i) The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. (ii) The words are arranged in descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step. (iii) While the numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number first, followed by prime number alternatively.
Now lets take the arrangement given in the Question Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Step I: demotion rock 31 rain 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 Step II: demotion rain rock 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 31 Step III: demotion rain takes rock 13 40 stock worship 29 86 31 72 Step IV: demotion rain takes worship rock 13 40 stock 86 31 72 29 Step V: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 13 86 31 72 29 40 Step VI: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 86 31 72 29 40 13
Q10. What will be the position of rock in step IV?
Sixth from right
Seventh from right
Seventh from left
Third from right
None of these
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. As a first step let’s first understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the final output you will observe the following: (i) The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. (ii) The words are arranged in descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each step. (iii) While the numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number first, followed by prime number alternatively.
Now lets take the arrangement given in the Question Input: rock 31 rain 13 40 stock 86 takes 72 demotion worship 29 Step I: demotion rock 31 rain 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 Step II: demotion rain rock 13 40 stock takes 72 worship 29 86 31 Step III: demotion rain takes rock 13 40 stock worship 29 86 31 72 Step IV: demotion rain takes worship rock 13 40 stock 86 31 72 29 Step V: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 13 86 31 72 29 40 Step VI: demotion rain takes worship rock stock 86 31 72 29 40 13
Directions (11-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Among eight persons, I is elder than only three person. J is younger than K, who is third eldest among them while L is not the youngest. M is elder than L but younger than N. P is elder than O, who is the father of M. N is not eldest person. O is the son of K. Q11. If they are arranged in descending order of their age, then how many persons are between N and J?
One
Two
Three
Four
None of these
Solution:
P > N > K > O > I > M > L > J
Q12 If P is the father of O, then how is K related to P?
Mother
Husband
Wife
Sister
None of these
Solution:
P > N > K > O > I > M > L > J
Q13. How many persons are elder than M?
Five
Three
Four
Two
None of these
Solution:
P > N > K > O > I > M > L > J
Directions (14-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below- In a family A, B, C, D, E and F are members. They are of different age. C is older than F and B. F is younger than A who is older than D. E is older than B and D. A is younger than B. D is not the youngest member. Q14. Who among the following is oldest member in this family?
C
E
B
F
Can’t be determined
Solution:
C/E > E/C > B> A> D> F
Q15. If B’s age is 32 yrs, then what may be the age of C?
Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions
Directions (1-5): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. The table shows the sales (in kg) of six different fruits in six different months by a fruit seller.
Q1. Grapes sold in April and May together is approximately by how much percent less than Oranges sold in January?
25.5%
20.4%
30.5%
18.6%
24%
Solution:
Q2. What is the average of quantity (in kg) of mangoes, grapes, berries, pineapples and oranges sold in May, January, April, June and March respectively?
528
568
588
586
598
Solution:
Q3. What is the ratio of total quantity of Mangoes and Apples sold in January to that of oranges and berries sold in June?
97:134
134:94
93:134
91:134
134:91
Solution:
Q4. Total quantity of Berries sold is approximately what percent of total quantity of Apples sold over the given months?
45%
51%
58%
60%
48%
Solution:
Q5. If on selling 5 kg Apples a profit of Rs. 45 is made, then what is the total profit amount earned on selling Apples?
Rs. 52,290
Rs. 54,450
Rs. 52,280
Rs. 59,220
None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Solve the question given below and find the exact value. Q6. 580 + 24 × 0.25 - 3 = ?
580
586
583
593
563
Solution:
= 580 + 6 - 3 = 583
Q7. 75% of 1228 + 45% of 400 = ?
1201
1101
1301
1501
1001
Solution:
Q8. 1520 + 18420 + 1680 ÷ 80 = ?
19951
19971
11981
11941
19961
Solution:
Q9. ?% of 6300 = 225 - 44% of 225
4
5
2
3
6
Solution:
Q10. ∛5832 × √361 = 18% of 190 × ?
12
10
8
9
15
Solution:
Q11. If the ages of A and C are added to twice the age of B, the total becomes 59. If the ages of B and C are added to thrice the age of A, the total becomes 68. And if the age of A is added to thrice the age of B and thrice the age of C, the total becomes 108. What is the age of A ?
17 years
19 years
12 years
11 years
21 years
Solution:
A + 2B + C = 59 …(i) 3A + B + C = 68 …(ii) A + 3B + 3C = 108 …(iii) Solving these equations together A = 12 years, B = 15 years, C = 17 years
Q12. Ruby’s monthly income is three times Gayatri’s monthly income. Gayatri’s monthly income is fifteen percent more than Priya’s monthly income. Priya’s monthly income is Rs. 32,000. What is Ruby’s Annual income?
Rs. 1,20,300
Rs. 13,24,800
Rs. 38,800
Rs. 54,600
Rs. 12,34,800
Solution:
Q13. In order to maximize his gain, a theatre owner decides to reduce the price of tickets by 20% and as a result of this, the sales of tickets increase by 40%. If, as a result of these changes, he is able to increase his weekly collection by Rs. 1,68,000, find by what value did the gross collection increase per day?
14,000
18,000
24,000
20,000
16,000
Solution:
Q14. A person bought 864 articles and sold 800 of them for the price he paid 864 articles. He sold the remaining articles at the same price per article as the other 800. The percentage gain on the entire transaction is
7.5%
8%
8.5 %
9 %
10 %
Solution:
Q15. Rashmi had Rs. 4200. She invested some of it in scheme A for 4 yours and rest of the money she invests in scheme B for two years. Scheme A offers simple interest at a rate of 22% p.a. and scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually) at a rate of 10% p.a. if the interest received from Scheme A is Rs. 1516 more than the interest received from Scheme B, what was the sum invested by her in scheme A?
Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.
Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk, RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released the call letters for the main exam to recruit of Clerical Cadre (CRP Clerk-VIII) in various public sector banks and other participating organizations. The online main examination for IBPS Clerk will be held on 20th January 2018. All the students who were waiting for the admit cards can download the call letters by clicking on the link provided below.
Important Dates:
Commencement of Call letter Download: 05th January 2018
Closure of Call letter Download: 20th January 2018
Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO
The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. Most of the questions in GA appear from Current Affairs section. So it becomes important for you all to cover this particular section with sincerity and seriousness. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.
Q1. The Indian Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018. This amendment is related to which of the following policy in the Act?
Teacher's training
No-detention
Zero tolerance
Mid-day meal
Student attendance
Solution:
The Indian Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018 that seeks to do away with the no-detention policy in schools. The Bill seeks to amend the Right to Education (RTE) Act to abolish the “no-detention” policy in schools.
Q2. U.S. President Donald J. Trump signed into law the ARIA. The act establishes a multifaceted U.S. strategy to increase U.S. security, economic interests, and values in the Indo-Pacific region. What does ‘I’ stands for in ARIA?
Indo
India
International
Income
Initiative
Solution:
U.S. President Donald J. Trump signed into law the Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA), which passed the U.S. Senate earlier in December. According to the White House, the act establishes a multifaceted U.S. strategy to increase U.S. security, economic interests, and values in the Indo-Pacific region.
Q3. The 'ARIA' will authorize ________ in spending for a range of U.S. programs in East and Southeast Asia.
$1. billion
$10 billion
$1.5 billion
$2.5 billion
$5 billion
Solution:
U.S. President Donald J. Trump signed into law the Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA). Specifically, the ARIA will authorize $1.5 billion in spending for a range of U.S. programs in East and Southeast Asia and develop a long-term strategic vision.
Q4. Dibyendu Palit passed away due to age-related ailments. He was a ________
Actor
Writer
Dancer
Freedom fighter
Politician
Solution:
Renowned Bengali writer and Sahitya Akademi awardee Dibyendu Palit passes away due to age-related ailments. He was 79-year-old.
Q5. As per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi), which of the following organisation has become India’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years?
HDFC Mutual Fund
Birla SL Frontline Equity Fund
DSP Micro Cap Fund
Axis Long Term Equity Fund
L&T Mutual Funds
Solution:
HDFC Mutual Fund has pipped ICICI Prudential MF to become the country’s largest asset management company after a gap of over two years. As of December-end, HDFC MF manages assets to the tune of Rs 3.35 lakh crore, while those of ICICI Prudential MF stood at Rs 3.08 lakh crore, as per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi).
Q6. Syndicate Bank has signed a bancassurance pact aiming to offer a comprehensive financial planning solution to its customers. With which organisation it signed the pact?
Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
Max Life Insurance
SBI Life Insurance
Life Insurance Corporation of India
Solution:
Syndicate Bank and SBI Life Insurance signed a bancassurance pact aiming to offer a comprehensive financial planning solution to its customers.
Q7. Who among the following has become world’s first woman amputee to climb Mount Vinson, the highest peak in Antarctica?
Santosh Yadav
Alana Nichols
Melissa Stockwell
Arunima Sinha
Premlata Aggarwal
Solution:
Arunima Sinha, the first female amputee to have conquered Mt Everest, created yet another record as she became world’s first woman amputee to climb Mount Vinson, the highest peak in Antarctica.
Q8. Markets regulator has allowed custodial services in the commodity derivatives market. The move is aimed at enabling the participation of institutional investors such as mutual funds and portfolio managers in the commodity derivatives market. What is the name of this regulator?
AMFI
CRISIL
IRDAI
RBI
SEBI
Solution:
Markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has allowed custodial services in the commodity derivatives market. The move is aimed at enabling the participation of institutional investors such as mutual funds and portfolio managers in the commodity derivatives market.
Q9. The Indian Parliament passed the National Council for Teacher Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018, following the approval of the Rajya Sabha. This bill will replace the _________________.
National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) Act, 2003
National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) Act, 1993
Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2009
National Council for Teacher's Training(NCTT) Act, 1999
None of the above option is the right answer
Solution:
The Indian Parliament passed the National Council for Teacher Education (Amendment) Bill, 2018, following the approval of the Rajya Sabha. The Lok Sabha had already passed the Bill. The Bill seeks to amend the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) Act, 1993.
Q10. As per the latest data available with Association of Mutual funds in India (Amfi), ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund’s AUM slipped by 0.6% in October-December quarter from the previous three-month period. What does M stands for in AUM?
Management
Mutual
Multi-national
Monitory
Manufacturing
Solution:
The assets under management (AUM) of HDFC MF have grown over 9% in October-December quarter from the previous three-month period, however, ICICI Prudential MF’s AUM slipped by 0.6% during the period under review.
You must accept that you might fail; then, even if you do your best and still don't win, at least you can be satisfied that you've tried. If you don't accept failure as a possibility, you don't set high goals, you don't branch out, you don't try - you don't take the risk.
To have faith doesn't mean you get any less frustrated when you don't do your best, but you know that it's not life and death. Take what you're given, and when you continue to work hard, you will see results. That will give you the confidence you need to keep going.
Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list. 1. JOVIAL : हंसमुख Meaning: full of or showing high-spirited merriment Synonyms: happy, cheerful Antonyms: sad, depressed Example: She was in a jovial mood 2. CLICHE : ठप्पा Meaning: a trite or obvious remark Synonyms: trite, platitude Antonyms:animating Example:My wedding day - and I know it's a cliche - was just the happiest day of my life. 3. COALITION : गठबंधन Meaning: the union of diverse things into one body or form or group Synonyms: alliance, union Antonyms: discord,rift Example:A coalition between Liberals and Conservatives 4. UNDERLYING : बुनियादी Meaning:in the nature of something though not readily apparent Synonyms: latent, repressed Antonyms: primary Example:The underlying message of the film is that love transcends everything else. 5. FEASABILITY : प्रयोज्य Meaning: the quality of being doable Synonyms: usability, facility Antonyms: useless Example: We're looking at the feasibility of building a shopping center there. 6. CENSURE : कड़ी निंदा Meaning: harsh crticism or disaproval Synonyms: reprimand, rebuke Antonyms: praise, acceptance Example:His dishonest behaviour came under severe censure. 7. LETHARGY : सुस्ती Meaning: showing an unusual lack of energy Synonyms: inactive, weak Antonyms: active, energetic Example: Symptoms of the disease include loss of appetite, lethargy, and vomiting. 8. SHAM : झूठा, बनावटी Meaning: something that is a counterfeit Synonyms: fake, dummy Antonyms: real Example:They claimed that the election had been fair, but really it was a sham. 9. SUPPLEMENT : पूरक Meaning: functioning in a supporting capacity Synonyms: supporting, additive Antonyms: base, core Example:The doctor said she should be taking vitamin supplements. 10. UNFETTERED : निरंकुश Meaning: not bound by shackles and chains Synonyms: unbounded, free Antonyms: chained, bounded Example: Poets are unfettered by the normal rules of sentence structure.
If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 10 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Watch The Video Solutions
Directions (1-5): Table shows result of five states boards exam, percentage of total passed students out of total appeared students in each board, percentage of boys passed out of total passed students and total number of schools in each board. Some data are missing, which have to calculate according to given information in questions.
Q1. If average number of students appeared from each schools of U.P board are 360 and out of total passed studentsare girls. Find total passed boys in U.P. board are what percent of total students appeared in U.P board exam ?
Solution:
Q2. If total passed boys in M.P board are 4.2 lakh and ratio between total passed students to total appeared students in that board is 7 : 10. Then average students appeared from each school in M.P. board is how much less than average students appeared from each school in U.P. board.(take average of students appeared from each school in U.P. board from previous question )
65
45
50
60
55
Solution:
Q3. Total passed boys in Rajasthan board are 6.825 lakh and total passed students in Rajasthan board are 70% of total appeared students of that board. If average number of students appeared in Rajasthan board from each schools are 750, then find total number of schools in Rajasthan board ?
2570
2000
1750
1950
2200
Solution:
Q4. If total number of passed students in Delhi board are 28.8 lakh and ratio between total passed boys to total passed girls of that board is 4 : 5. Then find total passed girls are what percent of total students appeared in Delhi board ?
Solution:
Q5. If ratio between total appeared students to total passed students in Bihar board is 5 : 3 and total passed boys in Bihar state are 9 lakh. Find ratio between total schools in Delhi state board to Bihar board, if average of appeared from each schools in students Bihar board is 800 ?
39 : 25
37 : 25
36 : 29
36 : 25
25 : 36
Solution:
Q6. There are two vessels A and B which contains mixture of sulphuric acid and nitrous oxide in the ratio of 7 : 2 and 3 : 4 respectively. Mixture of both vessels are mixed to obtain a mixture of 390 ml, in which quantity of nitrous oxide is 160 ml. Find ratio of quantity of mixture in vessel A quantity of mixture in vessel B?
7 : 6
6 : 7
5 : 7
7 : 9
4 : 7
Solution:
Q7. The surface area of a sphere is 423.5 cm² less than total surface area of a hemisphere. If ratio between radius of hemisphere and sphere is 3 : 2, then find the radius of hemisphere?
5.5 cm
5 cm
4 cm
7 cm
10.5 cm
Solution:
Q8. A 240 meters long train crosses a 210 meters long train while running in opposite direction in 6 sec. Ratio between speed of longer train and smaller train is 7 : 8. If faster train crosses a platform in 9 sec, then find time taken by slower train to cross a bridge, which is 60 meters more long than platform?
142/7 sec
136/7 sec
90/7 sec
148/7 sec
123/7 sec
Solution:
Q9. Raman invested some amount in scheme ‘P’ which offer 20% C.I. p.a while some amount in scheme ‘Q’ which offers 8% S.I. p.a. After 2 year ratio of interest, earned from ‘P’ to ‘Q’ is 11 : 6. Amount invested by Raman in scheme ‘P’ is what percent of the amount invested by him in scheme ‘Q’.
Solution:
Q10. A, B and C entered into a partnership business, A invested Rs. x, B invested 25% more than A and C invested 20% more than B. After 6 months, A left the business and B withdraw 50% of his investment and after 3 more months, B left the business whereas C increased his investment by. If at the end of year difference between profit share of C and (A + B) together is Rs. 10125, then find profit share of C ?
56250 Rs.
56500 Rs.
55680 Rs
55580 Rs.
52680 Rs.
Solution:
Ratio of investment of A, B and C = x : 1.25x : 1.5x = 4x : 5x : 6x ATQ— Profit share of A : B : C = 4x × 6 : (5x × 6 + 2.5x × 3) : (6x × 9 +7x × 3) = 24x : 37.5x : 75x Given→ C – (A + B) = 10125 75x – (24x + 37.5x) = 10125 x = 750 Profit share of C = 750 × 75 = 56250 Rs.
Directions (11-15): What will come in place of the “x” in the following questions Q11. 24% of 480 + 30% of 270 + 48% of 10 = x
Bankersadda brings to you the Revision of DAY-10 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon. In case you've missed the DAY-10 quizzes and LIVE DISCUSSIONS you still can watch the video solutions and attempt the quizzes.
Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF
IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.
Q1. For each question, four sentences are given corresponding to each option. One of the sentences is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which mentions the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all the four sentences are grammatically correct, then choose option (E) “All are correct” as your answer.
The most important aspect in a relationship is that we should stand for transformation and growth.
Why does glamour have more appeal than goodness?
Gratitude is more than just another emotion or expression of humanity.
When we understand something intellectually, we do so in relation to something else.
All are correct
Solution:
All the sentences given in the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) are grammatically correct.
Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.
Q2. For each question, four sentences are given corresponding to each option. One of the sentences is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which mentions the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all the four sentences are grammatically correct, then choose option (E) “All are correct” as your answer.
Business cycle have been with us as long as capitalism has.
The spiritual whole is internally divided into subject and object.
Appearance is merely a subjective creation, falsely identified by us with reality.
The factual debate about whether global warming is real is, or at least should be over.
All are correct
Solution:
All the sentences given in the options (b), (c) and (d) are grammatically correct except (a).
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
‘business cycle’ being a singular should be followed by ‘has’ instead of ‘have’.
Q3. For each question, four sentences are given corresponding to each option. One of the sentences is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which mentions the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all the four sentences are grammatically correct, then choose option (E) “All are correct” as your answer.
In most earthquakes the Earth’s crust cracks like porcelain.
In a world of many trading countries, the trade between two countries need not be balanced for the trade of each to be in global balance.
Turning the business around involved more than segmenting and pulling out of retail.
Dream analysts believe that every component in a dream has some significance to the person dreaming.
All are correct
Solution:
All the sentences given in the options are grammatically correct except (c).
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
‘Turning the business around’ being a singular noun-equivalent. The sentence is talking about a fact and so, the sentence must be in Simple Present Tense.
Q4. For each question, four sentences are given corresponding to each option. One of the sentences is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which mentions the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all the four sentences are grammatically correct, then choose option (E) “All are correct” as your answer.
By integral idealism we may understand a synthetic philosophy of spirit.
I use the concept of emergence as descriptive rather than explanatory.
This is the best gift which she could ever get in her marriage anniversary.
The noticeable fact is that evolution doesn’t mean the total supersession of lower forms in course of time.
All are correct
Solution:
All the sentences given in the options are grammatically correct except (c).
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
The relative pronoun ‘that’ is used instead of ‘who’ or ‘which’ after adjectives in the superlative degree.
Q5. For each question, four sentences are given corresponding to each option. One of the sentences is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which mentions the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all the four sentences are grammatically correct, then choose option (E) “All are correct” as your answer.
BJP’s allies suddenly seem to have a better bargaining hand after the saffron party’s defeat in three assembly polls.
The detailed study of mind is the subject matter of psychology, just as the detailed study of nature is the subject of physical science.
While learning how to make you comfortable with new people, being sociable is of utmost importance.
Though he is a great musician but he has his keen interest in gastronomy.
All are correct
Solution:
All the sentences given in the options are grammatically correct except (d).
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
‘Though’ is followed by ‘yet’ and not by ‘but’.
The correct framing of the sentence will be like, “Though he is a great musician, yet he has his keen interest in gastronomy.”
Directions (6-10): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence but none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose (d), i.e., None of the (I), (II) and (III) as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., No correction required as your answer.
Q6. When she went to the zoo, (I)/Lindsay got to see not only tigers, (II)/ but polar bears, iguanas, and toucans (III).
(I)When she goes to the zoo,
(II)Lindsay got to seeing not only tigers,
(III) but also polar bears, iguanas, and toucans.
Only (I)
Only (III)
Both (I) and (III)
None of the (I), (II) and (III)
No correction required
Solution:
Option (b) is the correct choice as there is error in only part (III) and the correct explanation of it is: “In standard English, when you use the phrase "not only" in a sentence, it should be followed by the phrase "but also." So, the correct answer is "When she went to the zoo, Lindsay got to see not only tigers, but also polar bears, iguanas, and toucans."
Q7. The teacher reprimanded his class, (I)/saying that he was neither pleased with their poor work (II)/nor was he willing to accept their rowdy behavior (III).
(I)The teacher reprimand his class,
(II) saying that he was either pleased with their poor work
(III) nor willing to accept their rowdy behavior.
Only (I)
Both (II) and (III)
Only (III)
None of the (I), (II) and (III)
No correction required
Solution:
Option (c) is the correct choice. The part (III) must be replaced as such given. This is according to the explanation, “The correlative conjunctions “neither” and “nor” belong together. In "neither . . . nor" sentences, the two options (“pleased with their poor work” and “willing to accept their rowdy behavior”) must be presented in a grammatically parallel way so that the words following “neither” and the words following “nor” are parallel phrases.”
Q8. While selecting her classes for the next semester(I),/ Emmie knew she would have to take either Introduction(II)/ to Literary Analysis nor Neuroscience, but not both(III).
(I)While selecting for her classes for the next semester,
(II) Emmie know she will have to take either Introduction
(III) to Literary Analysis or Neuroscience, but not both.
Only (I)
Only (III)
Both (I) and (II)
None of the (I), (II) and (III)
No correction required
Solution:
Option (b) is the most appropriate choice to be selected as the answer of the question as correction is required in part (III) of the sentence. This question requires you to correct a correlative conjunction error. Since the end of the sentence—"but not both"—indicates that Emmie will have to take one or the other, we know that the correlative conjunction "neither . . . nor" will not be used here, as it is used in situations when both options are rejected. Therefore, the correlative conjunction "either . . . or" has to be used, making the corrected sentence "When selecting her classes for the next semester, Emmie knew she would have to take either Introduction to Literary Analysis or Neuroscience, but not both."
Q9. A Emily Brontë ’s novel Wuthering Heights,(I) / the heroine, Catherine, must choose (II)/between true love or social pre-eminence.(III)/
(I) In Emily Brontë ’s novel Wuthering Heights,
(II) the heroine, Catherine, must have choose
(III) between true love and social pre-eminence.
Both (I) and (III)
Only (III)
Only (II)
None of the (I), (II) and (III)
No correction required
Solution:
Option (a) is the correct option as (I) and (III) are the correct replacement of the parts given in the question. As the statement is talking about Emily Bronte’s novel, tan adverb of place ‘in’ will be used rather than the article ‘a’ given in the beginning of the sentence. Furthermore, "the heroine, Catherine, must choose between true love or social pre-eminence," contain an incorrect idiomatic expression. When we have "between," we typically need the word "and"—rather than "or"—to separate the entities that follow.
Q10. Although the giant squid is an elusive creature rarely seen by humans,(I)/ scientists are beginning to gain a better understanding of the creature (II)/by studying it using remote cameras.(III)/
(I)Because the giant squid is a elusive creature rarely seen by humans,
(II) scientists are beginning to gain a better understanding for the creature
(III) by using it to study it using remote cameras.
Only (II)
Both (II) & (III)
Both (I) and (III)
None of the (I), (II) and (III)
No correction required
Solution:
Option (e) is the most apt choice. There is no correction required in the sentence given. The sentence is trying to explain that in spite of the giant squid's elusiveness, scientists are finding new ways of studying it. The sentence therefore is trying to contrast two ideas. Hence (e) is the correct answer.
Directions (11-15): In each sentence below, four words are given in BOLD, one of which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. Choose that inappropriate option. If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark option (e) i.e. all correct as your answer.
Q11. Prana is finer than the electromagnetic forces and is the pyramidal sea of energy from which the very atoms emerge.
Finer
Electromagnetic
Pyramidal
Emerge
All are correct
Solution:
Option (c) is the wrong answer. This word doesn’t fit in terms of context here. The word that must come in place of ‘pyramidal’ is ‘primordial’ which means existing at or from the beginning of time; primeval. Rest all the words are correct as given in the sentence.
Q12. The power of introverts in a world that can't stop talking' by Susa Cain is a Kick-starter of the quite revolution and talks about all successful introverts.
Introverts
Quite
Revolution
Successful
All are correct
Solution:
Option (b) is the most appropriate choice as it is the only option which is a wrong choice. Instead of the word ‘quite’, the word ‘quiet’ will be used. Rest all the options are correct.
Q13. In a world that is far more choatic than ever since Independence, India must keep its options open and be multi-aligned, even as the U.S. forms a key part in that scheme of things.
Choatic
Options
Multi-aligned
Scheme
All are correct
Solution:
Option (a) is the most suitable choice. Here the word ‘choatic’ is wrongly spelt. The correct spelling of the given word is ‘chaotic’. Rest all the options are correct and spelt correctly and appropriate in context too.
Q14. Water is available in huge quantities throughout the world, but scarcities can arise on a local level, since rainfall, natural water reservoirs, and demand create an uneven distribution at the globe.
Huge
Scarcities
Uneven
At
All are correct
Solution:
Option (d) is the most suitable choice. Here the preposition ‘at’ is used in a wrong way. The preposition ‘across’ will be used. We use across as a preposition (prep) and an adverb (adv.). Across means on the other side of something, or from one side to the other of something which has sides or limits such as a city, road or river.
On the other hand, ‘at’ is used as a preposition when it is used to show an exact position or particular place. Rest all the options are correct.
Q15. Washington is skeptic of Seoul taking a conciliatory approach to Pyongyang.
Skeptic
Taking
Conciliatory
Approach
All are correct
Solution:
Option (a) is the correct option as instead of the word skeptic which is the noun, an adjective ‘skeptical’ will be used which means not easily convinced; having doubts or reservations. Thus this word is not correct in terms of grammatical usage. Rest all the words are correct in the sentence. Conciliatory means Intended or likely to placate or pacify.
Approach means Start to deal with (a situation or problem) in a certain way.
Dear Students, every year IBPS conducts so many banking examinations to carry out the recruitment processes for employees at different scales. When it comes to IBPS Clerk Examination, one has to go through two levels of examinations before she gets a job in a Public Sector Bank of India. Mains examination, being the second and final step of this examination for IBPS Clerk, is comparatively difficult and hard to crack. To help you attempt the IBPS Clerk Mains examinations with poise, Adda247 brings to you high-level test series, "IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package" for Rs. 499.
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You can only manage to attempt the maximum number of questions in the examination if you have practiced with mock tests before the real examination. That's the reason why Adda247 comes up with this test series for mains examinationin which you will get 10 Full Length Mocks with video solutions, 15 Section wise Practice sets ( 5 Reasoning, 5 Quant & 5 English), 2 IBPS Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2017 & 2016), 2 SBI Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018 & 2017), 2 RRB Clerk Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018 & 2017), 1 IBPS PO Mains Previous Years Papers ( 2018), Banking Awareness eBook and Static Awareness eBook .
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Hi students, it's the 10th Day of Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018 in which we provide you with quizzes incorporating practice questions on the three subjects viz. English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning. We hope you haven't missed a single day of practice yet. The Quizzes are strictly based on the latest pattern of banking exams and incorporate the questions that are most likely to be asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19. Here are the subject-wise PDFs with practice questions from Practice Marathon Quizzes (Day 1 - Day 9).
We are also providing you with the video solutions of everyday quizzes for you to understand them better. Here is the table enlisting the links to the video solutions of the practice questions provided in these PDFs:
IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.
Directions (1-5): Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Q1. Hopes of lower interest rates and more liquidity on the back of easing retail inflation and the Reserve Bank’s outreach efforts and foreign fund inflows aided the barometer S&P BSE Sensex to gain over 150 points while NSE Nifty50 ended the session just short of 10,800 points. On a sector-specific basis, the rise was supported by healthy buying in the state-owned banking stocks after Reserve Bank of India Governor Shaktikanta Das on Thursday held a meeting with heads of Mumbai-based public sector banks. ________________________________________.
Crucial supports to watch for any weakness are at 10,750.
However, three days of upward movement gave investors a chance to book profits, capping the session’s gains.
Speaking at Republic Summit here, Ambani , who is chairman of energy-to-telecom conglomerate Reliance Industries Ltd, said data of an individual or business belongs to them and not to corporates who could use it to monetize from them.
The decision was made upon a review of the surveys conducted by the Reserve Bank to gauge consumer confidence, households’ inflation expectations, the corporate sector performance, credit conditions.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the minutes of the 14th meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) which decided to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.5 percent.
Solution:
Option (b) is the most appropriate choice. Option (b) must be the concluding sentence of the paragraph. As the paragraph mentions about the hopes of lower interest rates and more liquidity on the back of easing retail inflation, thus the paragraph is stating about the share market condition of S&P BSE Sensex and NSE Nifty, so the only statement that is referring about the investors among all is option (b) that however, three days of upward movement gave investors a chance to book profits , capping the session’s gains.
Q2. It is a complex and relatively new notion for us humans who seem to be programmed to think that the standards of human nature are issued from some authority and we are simply its creatures. _____________________________________.Or, that the nation itself replaces god. The state becomes the sole bearer of the idea of the nation and takes it upon itself to protect it from violators. To criticize the state thus becomes a blasphemous act.
The state seeks to present itself as a living being.
For Karl Marx, capitalism is bad because it does not allow subjectivity to flourish, or because it deifies hierarchy in subjectivities.
It is therefore not surprising that the transfer of loyalty from religion to nation is almost seamless.
Man is an individual who holds himself in hand by his intelligence and his will; he exists not merely in a physical fashion.
The aim and object of society is the growth of the individual and the development of his personality.
Solution:
Option (c) is the most suitable choice according to the context of the paragraph. It must be the second line as the first line itself describes about how humans think that they are under the authority and it’s the part of their nature and they think they are simply its creatures. Furthermore the application of it is direct which, is the transfer of loyalty from religion to nation and this is almost with no gaps or spaces that is seamless.
Q3. Audiobooks are booming audibly in the mobile age. ___________________________________________________. And while audiobook unit sales numbers are still small (US traditional publishers sold $240 million in audiobooks, compared to $1.8 billion in hardcover books), the format’s growth has meant more and more publishers are putting their money in people’s ears.
In audiobooks, readers depend on producers and actors to predigest and interpret content for them.
And in terms of productivity, listening to books in the gym may not be the best way to learn.
In many cases, audiobooks have proven successful in helping these students to access literature and enjoy books.
In the US, growth of audio is stronger than any other format, according to the Association of American Publishers, which tracks revenue from 1,200 book publishers.
Audiobooks have traditionally been used with second-language learners, learning-disabled students, and struggling readers or nonreaders.
Solution:
Option (d) is the most suitable choice which fits as an appropriate option according to the context of the paragraph. As the next line after the blank states about the audiobook unit sale numbers stating the fact that US traditional publishers sold $240 million in audiobooks , so the preceding line must be stating about US that the growth of audio is stronger than any other format, according to the Association of American Publishers, which tracks revenue from 1,200 book publishers.
Q4. J-Curve effect refers to a phenomenon wherein the trade balance of a country worsens following the depreciation of its currency before it improves. ___________________________________________.However, this may not happen immediately due to some other frictions within the economy. Many importers and exporters in the country, for instance, may be locked into binding agreements that could force them to buy or sell a certain number of goods despite the unfavorable exchange rate of the currency.
Simultaneously, exports will pick up as they have become more competitive/cheaper in the global market.
Generally, any depreciation in the value of a currency is expected to improve the economy’s overall trade balance by encouraging exports and discouraging imports.
This will lead to an improvement in trade balance & consequently in Current account deficit.
While India's exports have become more competitive due to the massive devaluation of the rupee, global growth has also stumbled which will limit the demand for India's exports.
Standard & Poors', world's largest credit rating agency, has warned that India could lose its investment grade credit rating in the coming months.
Solution:
Option (b) is the most suitable answer as it adjusts most appropriately according to the context of the paragraph given. The first line of the paragraph talks about the J-curve effect where it is defined that the trade balance of a country worsens following the depreciation of its currency before it improves. The second statement must be such that it too talks about depreciation in the value of currency which though improves economy’s overall trade balance but this does not happen immediately due to some other frictions within the economy.
Q5. Globally, men participate in the workforce more so than women. __________________________________________.In Australia for example, 39% of the female workforce has experienced harassment compared to just 26% of male. The perpetrators of this harassment ? 79% of the time the perpetrator is male. In the United States, 42% of working women have faced harassment compared to 22% of men.
In 2018, female workforce participation fell below 50% standing at 48.5% and yet male workforce participation is up at 75%.
This report shows how the effects of trauma that Burke is talking about equal actual dollars at the end of the day.
We can see what happens to a brand or a company when a figure head is accused of harassment and how much that costs.
Tarana Burke is speaking about the trauma of sexual violence and harassment that too many people around the world have experienced.
It’s undeniable, our world is becoming increasingly more globalized, and with the current educational model, students will not have the skills necessary to navigate the global market.
Solution:
Option (a) is the correct choice which fills the blank most suitably. The first statement mentions about the participation of men and women in the workforce globally. Option (a) is correct as the second statement because it describes about the female workforce participation which is fell below 50% standing at 48.5 % and yet male workforce participation is up at 75%.Thus this is the correct answer.
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below a paragraph is given with blank spaces which are numbered. Against each numbered blank space five options are given which may or may not fill the blanks. Choose the option that can fill the blank space appropriately. Q6. On December 18, the Union Ministry of Power issued a seemingly anodyne memo that set the rules for the flow of electricity across South Asian borders. Evaluated against the turbulent politics around the issue, the new guidelines (6).................................................. In an atmosphere of regional intrigue and mistrust, it is a rare and recent example of political pragmatism. It is important not only (7)................................................. but is also a concession to India’s neighbours in an area of political and economic importance. The revision is a response to two years of intense backroom pressure from neighbours, particularly Bhutan and Nepal, to drop trade barriers put up in 2016. The new guidelines meet most of their demands, that were timed to coincide with the recent visit of Bhutan’s new Prime Minister. India has thus signalled that (8)..................................................... that should undergird 21st century South Asian regionalism, such as electricity trade. This course correction is a return to a trajectory of incremental, hard-earned progress developed over the decades. Ideas of tying South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries together with cross-border energy flows — that punctuated the early 2000s — (9)................................................... between India and Bhutan (2006) and Bangladesh (2010). These were driven by India’s need for affordable power to fuel quickened growth in a recently liberalised economy. he apotheosis came in 2014 with the signing of the SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation and the India-Nepal Power Trade Agreement in quick succession. The new government in New Delhi was keen on regional cooperation, and these agreements imposed few restrictions on trade. Instead, they laid the contours of an institutional structure that would allow private sector participation and (10)................................................. At the Fifth SAARC Energy Ministers’ meeting that year, Power Minister Piyush Goyal said he dreamt of ‘a seamless SAARC power grid within the next few years’ and offshore wind projects ‘set up in Sri Lanka’s coastal borders to power Pakistan or Nepal’. Yet, two years later, the Union Ministry of Power released guidelines that imposed a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
influence in the energy sectors of South Asian neighbours.
revented anyone other than Indian generators in the neighbouring country,
are a startling departure from India’s previous stance.
were scores of privately held companies, particularly in Nepal,
None of the Above
Solution:
"are a startling departure from India’s previous stance." is contextually correct here as it maintains the continuity of the passage.
Q7. On December 18, the Union Ministry of Power issued a seemingly anodyne memo that set the rules for the flow of electricity across South Asian borders. Evaluated against the turbulent politics around the issue, the new guidelines (6).................................................. In an atmosphere of regional intrigue and mistrust, it is a rare and recent example of political pragmatism. It is important not only (7)................................................. but is also a concession to India’s neighbours in an area of political and economic importance. The revision is a response to two years of intense backroom pressure from neighbours, particularly Bhutan and Nepal, to drop trade barriers put up in 2016. The new guidelines meet most of their demands, that were timed to coincide with the recent visit of Bhutan’s new Prime Minister. India has thus signalled that (8)..................................................... that should undergird 21st century South Asian regionalism, such as electricity trade. This course correction is a return to a trajectory of incremental, hard-earned progress developed over the decades. Ideas of tying South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries together with cross-border energy flows — that punctuated the early 2000s — (9)................................................... between India and Bhutan (2006) and Bangladesh (2010). These were driven by India’s need for affordable power to fuel quickened growth in a recently liberalised economy. he apotheosis came in 2014 with the signing of the SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation and the India-Nepal Power Trade Agreement in quick succession. The new government in New Delhi was keen on regional cooperation, and these agreements imposed few restrictions on trade. Instead, they laid the contours of an institutional structure that would allow private sector participation and (10)................................................. At the Fifth SAARC Energy Ministers’ meeting that year, Power Minister Piyush Goyal said he dreamt of ‘a seamless SAARC power grid within the next few years’ and offshore wind projects ‘set up in Sri Lanka’s coastal borders to power Pakistan or Nepal’. Yet, two years later, the Union Ministry of Power released guidelines that imposed a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
because it leads South Asian electricity trade in progressive directions
access to the vast Indian market, the economic rationale for Nepali hydropower built for export was lost.
to be majority owned by an Indian entity.
fretted about limited access to India’s main electricity spot markets
None of the Above
Solution:
"because it leads South Asian electricity trade in progressive directions" is the correct choice as the passage deals with electricity trade and also describes that it will lead towards progressive directions.
Q8. On December 18, the Union Ministry of Power issued a seemingly anodyne memo that set the rules for the flow of electricity across South Asian borders. Evaluated against the turbulent politics around the issue, the new guidelines (6).................................................. In an atmosphere of regional intrigue and mistrust, it is a rare and recent example of political pragmatism. It is important not only (7)................................................. but is also a concession to India’s neighbours in an area of political and economic importance. The revision is a response to two years of intense backroom pressure from neighbours, particularly Bhutan and Nepal, to drop trade barriers put up in 2016. The new guidelines meet most of their demands, that were timed to coincide with the recent visit of Bhutan’s new Prime Minister. India has thus signalled that (8)..................................................... that should undergird 21st century South Asian regionalism, such as electricity trade. This course correction is a return to a trajectory of incremental, hard-earned progress developed over the decades. Ideas of tying South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries together with cross-border energy flows — that punctuated the early 2000s — (9)................................................... between India and Bhutan (2006) and Bangladesh (2010). These were driven by India’s need for affordable power to fuel quickened growth in a recently liberalised economy. he apotheosis came in 2014 with the signing of the SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation and the India-Nepal Power Trade Agreement in quick succession. The new government in New Delhi was keen on regional cooperation, and these agreements imposed few restrictions on trade. Instead, they laid the contours of an institutional structure that would allow private sector participation and (10)................................................. At the Fifth SAARC Energy Ministers’ meeting that year, Power Minister Piyush Goyal said he dreamt of ‘a seamless SAARC power grid within the next few years’ and offshore wind projects ‘set up in Sri Lanka’s coastal borders to power Pakistan or Nepal’. Yet, two years later, the Union Ministry of Power released guidelines that imposed a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
the new guidelines resolve all these issues and restore the governance of electricity trade to a less restrictive tone.
as a stable development partner rather than one inclined to defensive realpolitik.
could be an important instrument in achieving a greener grid.
it is serious about working with neighbours on the issues
None of the Above
Solution:
"it is serious about working with neighbours on the issues" is correct here as the South Asian countries are the neighbours of India.
Q9. On December 18, the Union Ministry of Power issued a seemingly anodyne memo that set the rules for the flow of electricity across South Asian borders. Evaluated against the turbulent politics around the issue, the new guidelines (6).................................................. In an atmosphere of regional intrigue and mistrust, it is a rare and recent example of political pragmatism. It is important not only (7)................................................. but is also a concession to India’s neighbours in an area of political and economic importance. The revision is a response to two years of intense backroom pressure from neighbours, particularly Bhutan and Nepal, to drop trade barriers put up in 2016. The new guidelines meet most of their demands, that were timed to coincide with the recent visit of Bhutan’s new Prime Minister. India has thus signalled that (8)..................................................... that should undergird 21st century South Asian regionalism, such as electricity trade. This course correction is a return to a trajectory of incremental, hard-earned progress developed over the decades. Ideas of tying South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries together with cross-border energy flows — that punctuated the early 2000s — (9)................................................... between India and Bhutan (2006) and Bangladesh (2010). These were driven by India’s need for affordable power to fuel quickened growth in a recently liberalised economy. he apotheosis came in 2014 with the signing of the SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation and the India-Nepal Power Trade Agreement in quick succession. The new government in New Delhi was keen on regional cooperation, and these agreements imposed few restrictions on trade. Instead, they laid the contours of an institutional structure that would allow private sector participation and (10)................................................. At the Fifth SAARC Energy Ministers’ meeting that year, Power Minister Piyush Goyal said he dreamt of ‘a seamless SAARC power grid within the next few years’ and offshore wind projects ‘set up in Sri Lanka’s coastal borders to power Pakistan or Nepal’. Yet, two years later, the Union Ministry of Power released guidelines that imposed a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
began to gain steam with substantial power trade agreements
of this grand vision have unfortunately been disappointing
approved 40 infrastructure and IT projects totaling US$7.7 billion through SASEC.
led to a prosperous and integrated Asia
None of the Above
Solution:
"began to gain steam with substantial power trade agreements " is both grammatically and contextually correct here as it maintains the continuity of the passage.
Q10. On December 18, the Union Ministry of Power issued a seemingly anodyne memo that set the rules for the flow of electricity across South Asian borders. Evaluated against the turbulent politics around the issue, the new guidelines (6).................................................. In an atmosphere of regional intrigue and mistrust, it is a rare and recent example of political pragmatism. It is important not only (7)................................................. but is also a concession to India’s neighbours in an area of political and economic importance. The revision is a response to two years of intense backroom pressure from neighbours, particularly Bhutan and Nepal, to drop trade barriers put up in 2016. The new guidelines meet most of their demands, that were timed to coincide with the recent visit of Bhutan’s new Prime Minister. India has thus signalled that (8)..................................................... that should undergird 21st century South Asian regionalism, such as electricity trade. This course correction is a return to a trajectory of incremental, hard-earned progress developed over the decades. Ideas of tying South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries together with cross-border energy flows — that punctuated the early 2000s — (9)................................................... between India and Bhutan (2006) and Bangladesh (2010). These were driven by India’s need for affordable power to fuel quickened growth in a recently liberalised economy. he apotheosis came in 2014 with the signing of the SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation and the India-Nepal Power Trade Agreement in quick succession. The new government in New Delhi was keen on regional cooperation, and these agreements imposed few restrictions on trade. Instead, they laid the contours of an institutional structure that would allow private sector participation and (10)................................................. At the Fifth SAARC Energy Ministers’ meeting that year, Power Minister Piyush Goyal said he dreamt of ‘a seamless SAARC power grid within the next few years’ and offshore wind projects ‘set up in Sri Lanka’s coastal borders to power Pakistan or Nepal’. Yet, two years later, the Union Ministry of Power released guidelines that imposed a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
a slew of major restrictions on who could engage in cross-border electricity trade.
facilitate market rationality in electricity commerce.
to perceptions of increased Chinese investment and influence in the energy sectors.
partially address its power crisis with imports from Bhutan and Nepal.
None of the Above
Solution:
"facilitate market rationality in electricity commerce." is both grammatically and contextually correct here as it maintains the continuity of the passage.
Directions (11-15): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence is given which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank, choose option (e) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice. Q11. After two years of protests from neighbours, the new guidelines resolve all the issues and restore the governance of electricity trade ..................................
to a more severe tone.
to an aimless result.
to a less restrictive tone
to a devastating side.
None of the Above
Solution:
"to a less restrictive tone " is correct as the restoring is done after the protests and so it must have been positive.
Q12. The new guidelines are a tentative first step towards the creation of a true regional market in which generators across the subcontinent compete ................................
to deliver low-cost, green energy to consumers.
to delivery low-cost, green energy to consumers.
to deliver high-cost, inefficient energy to consumers.
to have been delivered low-cost energy to consumers.
None of the Above
Solution:
"to deliver low-cost, green energy to consumers" is correct here as generators would focus on low cost and environment friendly or green energy to customers.
Q13. I’m always a bit uncomfortable with universities jumping into ............................................the honorary degrees to stalwarts and legends outside academics.
denying the fact to grorify
amaze the people of the group
the pronlem of facing issues
the race of getting glorified by awarding
None of the Above
Solution:
"the race of getting glorified by awarding" is grammatically and contextually correct.
Q14. A student who works hard and invests 4/5 years (or more) of his life in the library and laboratory gets the degree from the same dais along with a Bollywood star, and all the limelight ..........................................................
will invariate that actor who is a public figure.
will invariably be on that actor who is a public figure.
will invariably be on that actor which is a public figure.
will invariably be on those actor who is a public figure.
None of the Above
Solution:
"will invariably be on that actor who is a public figure." is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q15. Early this year the government introduced an Electoral Bond Scheme purportedly with a view to clean the prevailing culture of political sponsorship.
clean the prevail culture of political sponsorship.
cleans the prevailing culture of political sponsorship.
have clean the prevailing culture of political sponsorship.
clean the prevailing culture of political sponsorship
None of the Above
Solution:
"clean the prevailing culture of political sponsorship" is grammatically and contextually correct here.
IBPS brought out the results for Preliminary examination held for the recruitment process of IBPS Clerks. While some happened to sail through the exam, others had had their chips who are down in dumps now. Well, there is nothing to be sad about because your ultimate success is just a pile of failures you got to face in your past. Here is the live discussion by Anil Nagar Sir and Vishal Sir on the upcoming opportunities in the year 2019 that you will get a second bite at the cherry with. Here is the link to it:
Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 11 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Watch the Video Solutions Here
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions below. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W have their accounts in different banks viz. Axis bank, Bank of India, Canara bank, HDFC, ICICI, PNB, SBI, UCO bank. T has account in PNB. Q has account either in ICICI or in Canara bank. W does not have account in Bank of India and Axis bank. P has account in SBI. V neither have account in Bank of India nor in Axis bank. Neither R nor S have account in Bank of India. S does not have account in Axis Bank. V and W does not have account in HDFC bank. Neither V nor W have account in ICICI bank. V does not have account in UCO bank. Q1. Who among the following have account in Canara bank?
S
W
P
V
None of these
Solution:
Q2. S have account in which bank?
SBI
HDFC bank
PNB
UCO bank
None of these
Solution:
Q3. Who among the following have account in Axis bank?
S
W
P
R
None of these
Solution:
Q4. U have account in which bank?
SBI
HDFC bank
Bank of India
UCO bank
None of these
Solution:
Q5. Which of the following combination is true?
ICICI bank-P
HDFC bank-V
PNB-R
UCO bank-W
Bank of India-S
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. There is a sports meet in a school starting from Monday and ending on Saturday. Six sports are being played on each day namely Football, Cricket, Volleyball, Basketball, Badminton, Golf. But not necessarily in the same order. Volleyball is not played on the first day or on the last day of the week. Three sports are played between Badminton and Football. Badminton is played before Football. No game is played between Football & Cricket. Volleyball is not played on Wednesday or Thursday. Golf is played on Wednesday. Basketball is played before Cricket but after Volleyball. Q6. Which game is played on the last day of the week?
cricket
basketball
football
golf
badminton
Solution:
Q7. On which of the following day is volleyball played?
Friday
Thursday
Wednesday
Tuesday
Monday
Solution:
Q8. Which game is played just before badminton?
cricket
volleyball
golf
no game
football
Solution:
Q9. Which of the following represents the correct combination?
Monday-cricket
Thursday-basketball
Friday-volleyball
Saturday-basketball
Tuesday-golf
Solution:
Q10. Which of the following pair represent 1st game played just before the 2nd game?
Cricket, badminton
golf, football
football, badminton
golf, volleyball
football, cricket
Solution:
Directions (11-15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit. Give answer as: Q11. Statement: It is faster to travel by air to Delhi from Bangalore. Assumptions: I. Bangalore and Delhi are connected by air. II. There are no other means of transport available to Delhi from Bangalore.
if only assumption I is implicit
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
Solution:
The statement advises to travel by air between the two cities. So, I is implicit. Besides, it talks of air transport being a faster means of travel. This means that other means of transport, slower than air transport, are available. So, II is not implicit.
Q12. Statement: Bank ‘A’ has announced reduction of half percentage on the interest rate on retail lending with immediate effect. Assumptions: I. Other banks may also reduce the retail lending rates to be in competition. II. Bank ‘A’ may be able to attract more customers for availing retail loans.
if only assumption I is implicit
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
Solution:
Reducing interest rate on loans is surely a step to draw in more customers. But the implications of such a policy on other banks cannot be ascertained, as interest rate is not the only criterion to lure customers. So, only II is implicit.
Q13. Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India, we still continue to import sugar. Assumptions: I. The consumption of sugar per capital has increased in India. II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
if only assumption I is implicit
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
Solution:
Clearly, the need to import sugar could be either due to increase in consumption or the inefficiency of the factories to produce sugar to their fullest capacity. So, either I or II is implicit.
Q14. Statement: A foreign film producer rendered his apology before Indian society for misinterpreting a part of India epic. Assumptions: I. Indian is very sensitive to the misinterpretation of their epic. II. It is possible to derive wrong meaning from the epic.
if only assumption I is implicit
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
Solution:
From the content of the statement it is clear that both the assumption is implicit in the statement.
Q15. Statement: We must settle all the payment due to our suppliers within three working days. Assumptions: I. We will always have necessary funds in our account to settle the bills. II. We are capable of verifying and clearing the bills in less than three working days.
if only assumption I is implicit
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
Solution:
Since the statement talks of making all payments within three days, it is evident that the company has the necessary funds and the bills can be verified and cleared within the stipulated time. So, both I and II are implicit.
Bihar State Co-operative Assistant Manager Prelims Exam Analysis:
Bihar State Co-operative Assistant Manager is one of the most sought-after recruitment in the banking industry. Several aspirants are burning candles at both ends to get a seat for themselves in this prestigious bank. Many students appeared for this exam and the competition will be very tough this time. Therefore, it is necessary that one gets aware about the type of questions being asked in the exam so that you get an idea about how to plan your strategy to attempt the questions in the exam and manage your time accordingly.
In this exam, there is the composite time of 60 minutes in the Prelims Exam, its important for all banking aspirants to go through the review once. Exam analysis and review can help the aspirants who are yet to appear in upcoming banking or insurance exam to get an idea of the difficulty level and expected the pattern of questions in Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and English Language sections. The examination held in this shift was of Easy to Moderate level. The order of occurrence of sections was English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning.
Bihar State Co-operative Assistant Manager Exam Analysis 2019: Section-wise Analysis-
Subject
Good Attempt
Time
English Language
13-17
20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability
27-31
20 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude
21-24
20 Minutes
Total
62-68
60 Minutes
English Language (Easy-Moderate)
English section was also of easy to moderate level. There was one set of Reading Comprehension with 6 questions. Other topics which dominated were Cloze Test, sentence Rearrangement and Sentence Improvement.
Topic
No. of Questions
Level
Reading Comprehension
06
Easy-Moderate
Sentence Rearrangement
05
Easy-Moderate
Sentence Improvement
04
Easy
Cloze Test
06
Easy-Moderate
Fill in the Blanks
05
Easy-Moderate
Word Replacement
04
Moderate
Total
30
Easy-Moderate
Reasoning (Easy)
The level of reasoning was of Easy. There were 4 sets of puzzles and Seating Arrangement, following are the types
Circular seating arrangement
Box Based Puzzle
Day Based Puzzle (3 variables)
Linear Puzzle
Topics
No. of Questions
Level
Puzzles and Seating Arrangement
18
Easy
Syllogism
05
Easy
Direction Sense
03
Easy
Order & Ranking
02
Easy
Inequalities
05
Easy
Blood Relation
02
Easy
Total
35
Easy
Quantitative Aptitude (Moderate)
The level of Quantitative Aptitude section was Moderate. One can easily attempt questions if they have practised well. There were 2 DIs. DI questions were based on a Tabular DI in this slot.
Topic
No. of Questions
Level
Data Interpretation
10
Moderate
Wrong Number Series
05
Moderate
Quadratic Equation
05
Moderate
Arithmetic Word Problems (Profit and Loss, Problem on Ages, SI & CI etc)
15
Moderate
Total
35
Moderate
Keep calm and you'll surely do well in the exam!
Share Your exam experience, questions asked and review with us at blogger@adda247.com
Dear Students, what you wear and how you carry yourself plays a big part in impression formation and your first impression, no doubt carries huge weight in the personal interview round of IBPS PO Exam. In essence, one should dress neatly and professionally for the personal interview round of these exams so as to make it to the final selections. The interviewers are more likely to single you out as the right candidate if you cut a dash on the day of your interview. Here are the guidelines, separately for men and women to dress up for IBPS PO Interview 2018.
Women:
You can choose from trousers paired with a light colored formal shirt, light solid colored saree paired with a collared or V-Neck (not too deep neck) and 3/4th sleeves blouse and light shade salwar – kameez.
If you choose a trouser, it should be dark-colored paired with a light color formal shirt.
The suit or saree must be simple and without much embroidery or other work on it.
Use a little makeup just to get a polished look. Avoid loud makeup and wearing dark color lipstick or nail colors. You may choose not to wear any makeup at all, only a simple and neat look is all you need.
Trousers should be paired with dark color formal shoes. Those wearing saree or salwar kameez can wear flat or lightly heeled chappals.
If you are carrying a purse, it must be simple and small. Avoid carrying large flashy bags.
Men:
A two-piece matched suit is the best and safest choice. Choose a not so flashy, solid or very subtle weave pattern suit that is dark in color and paired with a light colored shirt.
If you cannot afford a suit, wear a light colored full shirt paired with dark trousers. Strictly avoid loud and flashy colors.
Pair the suit or shirt with a good tie, coordinating socks (with mid-calf length so that no skin is visible even when you sit down) and formal shoes.
Do not forget to take a neat hair-cut and clean shave before you appear for the interview.
Remember to be positive and confident while answering the interviewers' questions, giving a mumble-jumble answer will do no good. We hope these tips help you perform to the best of your ability in the Personal Interview round of IBPS PO Examination 2018. All the best!!
