With the increased competition in the field of banking examinations, it has now become very important to cover up all the sections efficiently. One subject that can help you bagging graceful marks in the minimum time in these examinations is Banking Awareness. Banking Awareness Quiz not only helps you deal with the General Awareness Section of Banking Exams but also, the Personal Interview round of Banking Recruitment.
Q1. Fitch Ratings revised downwards India’s GDP growth forecast to _______________ for current fiscal.
7.1%
7.2%
6.8%
7.4%
7.3%
Solution:
Fitch Ratings revised downwards India’s GDP growth forecast to 7.2% for current fiscal citing higher financing cost and reduced credit availability. In its Global Economic Outlook, Fitch projected that for 2019-20 and 2020-21 financial years, India’s GDP growth will be 7% and 7.1% respectively. Fitch had in June projected India to grow at 7.4% in current fiscal and 7.5% in 2019-20.
Q2. Which of the following organization has launched an industry-first feature that will help loan applicants choose their most-suited lender on its platform?
Policybazaar.com
SBI General Insurance
Paisabazaar.com
Max Bupa
Ask Me.com
Solution:
Paisabazaar.com, India’s largest online marketplace for financial products has launched an industry-first feature that will help loan applicants choose their most-suited lender on its platform. Named ‘Chance of Approval’, this advanced predictive algorithm has been created by Paisabazaar.com by using the last four years of lending data.
Q3. Leading Investment Bank _________ announced that its MD & CEO Dharmesh Mehta has stepped down.
Edelweiss Financial Services Ltd.
Bnp Paribas
Bob Capital Markets Ltd.
Axis Capital
Jefferies India Pvt. Ltd.
Solution:
Leading Investment Bank Axis Capital announced that its MD & CEO Dharmesh Mehta has stepped down. The bank has elevated Salil Pitale and Chirag Negandhi as Joint Managing Directors and Co-Chief Executive Officer.
Q4. At the India Water Impact Summit 2018, the government has sanctioned 254 projects worth over ________________ rupees under National Mission for Clean Ganga.
29,000 Crore
24,000 Crore
18,000 Crore
34,000 Crore
14,000 Crore
Solution:
The government has sanctioned 254 projects worth over 24 thousand crore rupees under National Mission for Clean Ganga. River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation Minister Nitin Gadkari, around five thousand crore rupees have been spent in the last four years under it. The Announcement was made at the India Water Impact Summit 2018 in New Delhi.
Q5. Which of the following Bank has extended a credit facility of USD 500 million to Tanzania for water supply projects in the country?
Punjab National Bank
State Bank of India
Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
Bank of Baroda
Export-Import Bank of India
Solution:
Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) has extended a credit facility of USD 500 million to Tanzania for water supply projects in the country. Exim Bank signed an agreement in May 2018, with the Tanzania government for making available a Government of India-supported line of credit of USD 500 million for the purpose of financing water supply schemes.
Q6. Which company will acquire seven IBM products by mid-2019 for $1.8 billion (over Rs 12,700 crore) in its biggest ever acquisition so far?
Sony
TCS
HP
Apple
HCL
Solution:
Noida-based IT major HCL Technologies will acquire seven IBM products by mid-2019 for $1.8 billion (over Rs 12,700 crore) in its biggest ever acquisition so far. The all-cash deal entails software in areas including security, marketing, collaboration solutions, and represents a total addressable market of over $50 billion. The deal includes the transfer of some IBM employees as well.
Q7. The ‘Agriculture Export Policy, 2018’ seeks to double farm exports to $60 billion by 2022 from $30 billion currently and will invest ____________ crore to set up specialised clusters in different states for different produce to push exports.
Rs. 1,400 crore
Rs. 2,800 crore
Rs. 1,000 crore
Rs. 5,300 crore
Rs. 4,700 crore
Solution:
The Union cabinet approved an export policy for agriculture, lifting all restrictions on organic and processed food, to help the government’s efforts to double farmers’ income by 2022. The ‘Agriculture Export Policy, 2018’ seeks to double farm exports to $60 billion by 2022 from $30 billion currently and will invest 1,400 crore to set up specialised clusters in different states for different produce to push exports. Policy for sensitive farm goods such as onions will be reviewed from time to time.
Q8. The Union Cabinet has approved the launching of National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems to be implemented by the Department of Science and Technology at a total cost of ___________________ crore for a period of five years.
Rs 1,450 crore
Rs 2,410 crore
Rs 5,270 crore
Rs 3,660 crore
Rs 8,340 crore
Solution:
The Union Cabinet has approved the launching of National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) to be implemented by the Department of Science and Technology at a total cost of Rs 3,660 crore for a period of five years. The NM-ICPS is a comprehensive mission which would address technology development, application development, human resource development, skill enhancement, entrepreneurship and start-up development in CPS and associated technologies.
Q9. The government has appointed __________________________ as the new Chief Economic Advisor.
Siddhartha Bhattacharya
Dr Krishnamurthy Subramanian
Preeti Saran
Dharmesh Mehta
TS Vijayan
Solution:
The government appointed Dr. Krishnamurthy Subramanian as the new Chief Economic Advisor. Dr. Subramanian will have a tenure of three years. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has cleared his name. He is currently working as an Associate Professor at the Indian School of Business, Hyderabad.
Q10. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Government of Goa, hosted the annual Startup India Venture Capital Summit in Goa. What is the theme of this summit?
India Opportunity, Increase Capital Flow
Showcased the Indian Startup Opportunity For Funds from Around the World
Indian Startups and Further Promote Ease of Doing Business
Annual Startup India Venture Capital
Mobilizing Global Capital for Innovation in India
Solution:
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Government of Goa, hosted the annual Startup India Venture Capital Summit in Goa. The theme of the Summit was ‘Mobilizing Global Capital for Innovation in India.’ The event showcased the Indian startup opportunity for funds from around the world. The key objectives of the Summit were to showcase the India opportunity, increase capital flow for Indian startups and further promote ease of doing business.
Q11. The number of patents granted by India shot up by ______________ in 2017, keeping up a trend of steep increases, according to the UN’s World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).
60%
40%
50%
70%
30%
Solution:
The number of patents granted by India shot up by 50% in 2017, keeping up a trend of steep increases, according to the UN’s World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO). The patents granted by India increased from 8,248 in 2016 to 12,387 in 2017, the WIPO’s World Intellectual Property Indicators 2018 report released in Geneva showed. Globally, 1.4 million patents were granted in 2017, the report estimated.
Q12. Maharashtra Government has launched _________________ assisted State of Maharashtra's Agribusiness and Rural Transformation (SMART) Project.
AIIB
IMF
World Bank
ADB
WTO
Solution:
The state government launched an ambitious project State of Maharashtra Agribusiness and Rural Transformation (SMART) in 10,000 villages with an objective to achieve sustainable farming within the next three years. The project SMART will be assisted by the World Bank.
Q13. Current account deficit (CAD) widened to______of GDP for the July-September quarter.
2.4%
2.9%
3.3%
3.2%
2.7%
Solution:
Current account deficit (CAD) widened to 2.9% of GDP for the July-September quarter due to higher trade deficit compared with 1.1% during the same period of the previous year, according to the Reserve Bank of India.
Q14. According to the World Bank report, India will retain its position as the world’s top recipient of remittances in 2018 with its diaspora sending a whopping _______ back home.
USD 93 billion
USD 72 billion
USD 100 billion
USD 69 billion
USD 80 billion
Solution:
India will retain its position as the world’s top recipient of remittances in 2018 with its diaspora sending a whopping USD 80 billion back home, according to the World Bank report.
Q15. Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of New India Assurance?
Urjit Patel
Parnab Kumar
Anil Sahani
Atul Sahai
Kamal Kant Sahai
Solution:
Atul Sahai has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the country’s largest general insurance company New India Assurance. The post had been lying vacant since July 2018.
Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.
Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk, RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!
Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO
The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. Most of the questions in GA appear from Current Affairs section. So it becomes important for you all to cover this particular section with sincerity and seriousness. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Knowledge of current news also helps you deal with the PI (Personal Interview) more efficiently so you do not give a mumble jumble answer to the interviewee's simple questions. Here is a quiz on Current Affairs to let you assess your Current Affairs Knowledge.
Q1. The 106th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC), 2019 concluded in ________.
Pune
Jalandhar
Lucknow
Dehradun
Amritsar
Solution:
The 106th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC), 2019 concluded in Lovely Professional University, Jalandhar, Punjab. The five-day session was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi and attended by Union Science & Technology Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan.
Q2. The theme of 4th edition of the Raisina Dialogue is _________.
A World Reorder: Ending poverty and hunger
Fostering sustainable economic transformation
Protecting our planet, promoting sustainable consumption and tackling climate change
A World Reorder: New Geometries; Fluid Partnerships; Uncertain Outcomes
Strengthening institutions to achieve sustainable development
Solution:
The fourth edition of the Raisina Dialogue has begun in New Delhi. The theme of the Dialogue this year is “A World Reorder: New Geometries; Fluid Partnerships; Uncertain Outcomes”.
Q3. A ministry Introduced 70-Point Grading Index. It is aimed to ______
Assess the quality of Mid-day meal at government schools
Decrease the number of suicides in JNVs
Assess the quality of teachers' training program in schools
Assess the smart city development work progress
Assess the quality of school education
Solution:
The HRD ministry has introduced a 70-point grading index to assess the quality of school education offered by states. A state performance grading will be done wherein the states will be marked out of 1,000 scores on 70 parameters.
Q4. According to the Central Statistics Office (CSO), income earned by an average Indian per year doubled in 7 years. What is the income earned by an average Indian in 2018-19?
Rs 1.45 lakh
Rs 96,500
Rs 1.01 lakh
Rs 1.25 lakh
Rs 86,000
Solution:
The income earned by an average Indian doubled in 7 years, from Rs 63,642 per year in 2011-12 to Rs 1.25 lakh in 2018-19, the first advance estimates of national income released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) show.
Q5. Sheikh Hasina sworn-in as the Bangladesh Prime Minister. It is her ______consecutive term as PM.
3rd
4th
5th
2nd
6th
Solution:
Sheikh Hasina sworn-in as the Bangladesh Prime Minister for the fourth term. It is her third consecutive term after her victory in the 11th Parliamentary elections.
Q6. Name the Malaysian King who has abdicated after two years on the throne, the first time a monarch has stepped down before completing their five-year tenure.
Abdul Halim V
M. Muhammad III
Muhammad V
Tengku Muhammad Faiz Petra
Mahathir Mohamad
Solution:
Malaysia’s King Muhammad V abdicated after two years on the throne, the first time a monarch has stepped down before completing their five-year tenure.
Q7. Who has been appointed as the director general of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)?
Kumar Rajesh Chandra
Kumar Roshan Chandra
Roshan Kumar
Alok Verma
Kumar Saurabh
Solution:
Civil Aviation Security head and senior IPS officer Kumar Rajesh Chandra was appointed as the director general of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
Q8. Who has been reinstated as the CBI chief by the Supreme Court?
Alok Asthana
Alok Verma
Rakesh Asthana
M Nageshwar Rao
Pranav Chandra
Solution:
Alok Verma has been reinstated as the CBI chief by the Supreme Court, three months after the government divested him of his powers and sent him on forced leave. Alok Verma and his deputy Rakesh Asthana were both sent on leave in October amid a bitter feud between the CBI’s top two.
Q9. Central Statistics Office (CSO) stated that the growth in GDP during 2018-19 is estimated at _______.
7.4%
6.9%
7.2%
7.5%
8.1%
Solution:
Releasing the first advance estimates of National Income for 2018-19, Central Statistics Office (CSO) stated that the growth in GDP during 2018-19 is estimated at 7.2% as compared to the growth rate of 6.7% in 2017-18.
Q10. What is the name of World Bank President who has resigned from the post?
Mariya Gabriel
Gita Gopinath
António Guterres
Kristalina Georgieva
Jim Yong Kim
Solution:
World Bank President, Jim Yong Kim has made the surprise announcement that he is stepping down after six years in the post. His resignation will take effect from 1 February.
Q11. Who won Golden Globe Awards 2019 under Best Actor in Motion Picture-Drama Category?
Rami Malek
Christian Bale
Mahershala Ali
Nick Vallelonga
Brian Currie
Solution:
Rami Malek won Golden Globe Awards 2019 under Best Actor in Motion Picture-Drama Category.
Q12. Who won Golden Globe Awards 2019 under Best Director in Motion Picture-Drama Category?
Brian Currie
Olivia Colman
Glen Close
Alfonso Cuaron
Rami Malek
Solution:
Alfonso Cuaron (Roma) won Golden Globe Awards 2019 under Best Director in Motion Picture-Drama Category.
Q13. Who has become the first woman chief economist of International Monetary Fund?
Kristalina Georgieva
Gita Gopinath
Jim Yong Kim
Geeta Gopikrishnan
Smrithi Krishnamurthi
Solution:
Mysore-born Gita Gopinath has joined International Monetary Fund as its chief economist, becoming the first woman to occupy the top IMF post.
Q14. Information & Broadcasting ministry launched the sharing of All India Radio News with private FM broadcasters. Who is the Minister of State (IC) for Information & Broadcasting?
Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore
Dr. Harsh Wardhan
Smriti Irani
Ajay Tamta
Giriraj Singh
Solution:
Union Minister of State (IC) for Information & Broadcasting and Youth Affairs & Sports, Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore (Retd.) launched the sharing of All India Radio News with private FM broadcasters.
Q15. Which ministry has introduced a 70-Point Grading Index?
Ministry of Home Affairs
Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
Ministry of Finance
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Ministry of Human Resource Development
Solution:
Ministry of Human Resource Development has introduced a 70-point grading index to assess the quality of school education offered by states. A state performance grading will be done wherein the states will be marked out of 1,000 scores on 70 parameters.
If the plan doesn't work, change the plan but never change the goal.
Plans are the roadmaps towards success. Achieving goals is not an easy task, you need to plan everything, from the first step to the last. Plans may fail and you might need to modify or completely adopt a new one but never divert your mind from what you want to achieve as a life without a goal is useless.
What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!
Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.
1.BETRAYAL विश्वासघात Meaning: the action of betraying one's country, a group, or a person. Synonyms: treachery, cheat Antonyms: faithfulness, loyalty Example: The betrayals are harder to get over than any physical injury. 2.MANIFESTATION अभिव्यक्ति Meaning: the action or fact of showing something Synonyms: demonstration, reveal Antonyms: hide, conceal Example: To colonists, idiocy was a pitiable and vulnerable condition, one more manifestation of God's diverse creations. 3.PROSPECTIVE प्रत्याशित Meaning: expected or expecting to be the specified thing in the future Synonyms: potential, possible Antonyms: impossible Example: Prospective measures must be taken to make sure that future investments do not fail like the current ones. 4.DISPOSITION मनोवृत्ति Meaning:a person's inherent qualities of mind and character. Synonyms:nature, temperament Antonyms:disinclination Example: With her inquisitive disposition, Sarah is an ideal candidate for the detective’s position. 5.INCESSANTLY निरंतर Meaning: without interruption Synonyms: constantly, continually Antonyms: stoppage, cease Example: Reena talked about Romil incessantly. 6.ABORIGINAL मूल निवासी Meaning: inhabiting or existing in a land from the earliest times or from before the arrival of colonists. Synonyms: indigenous, naive Antonyms: modern, new Example: The archaeologist found several aboriginal artifacts at the dig site of the ancient city. 7.ABOUND प्रचुर मात्रा में Meaning: exist in large numbers or amounts. Synonyms: flourish, abundant Antonyms: less, small Example: Local beers abound in the neighborhood pub that is rumored to have some of the best beverages in the world. 8.ALTRUISM परोपकारिता Meaning: disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others. Synonyms: selfless, self-denial Antonyms: selfish, mean Example: Some may choose to work with vulnerable elderly people out of altruism. 9.CAUSTIC सख़्त Meaning: extremely sarcastic or critical. Synonyms: mordant, destructive Antonyms: safe Example: Because my uncle was a mean man, he took pleasure in making caustic statements to people. 10.CLOYING खुशामदी Meaning: disgust or sicken (someone) with an excess of sweetness, richness, or sentiment. Synonyms:over the top, honeying Antonyms: mild, good Example: Jill is no longer impressed by cloying lines of devotion after having her heart broken countless times.
If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 15 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Q1. If the absolute difference between the selling price of the article when there is 15% loss and 15% gain in selling an article is Rs. 450, then what is the cost price of the article?
Rs. 1,200
Rs. 1,500
Rs. 2,000
Rs. 2,200
None of these
Solution:
Q2. A businessman’s earning increases by 25% in first year but decreases by 4% in the next and so on. After 5 years his total earnings would be Rs. 72,000. What is his present earning?
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 80,000
Rs. 40,000
Rs. 45,000
None of these
Solution:
Q3. A trader sells goods to a customer at a profit of k% over the cost price, besides it he cheats his customer by giving 880g only instead of 1 kg. Thus, his overall profit percentage is 25% Find the value of k.
8.33%
8.25%
10%
12.5%
None of these
Solution:
Q4. The cost price of three varieties of apples namely A, B and C is Rs. 20/kg, Rs. 40/kg and Rs. 50/kg respectively. Find the selling price of one kg of apple in which these three varieties of apples are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 such that there is a net profit of 20% ?
Rs. 48
Rs. 48.6
Rs. 49.2
Rs. 49.8
None of these
Solution:
Q5. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the final solution formed by mixing petrol and kerosene that are present in three vessels in the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1 respectively, if quantity of mixture in vessels are equal?
83 : 11
83 : 22
83 : 44
16 : 27
None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-10): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer Q6. I. 5x+7y=339 II. 7x+5y=321
if x>y
if x<y
if x≥y
if x ≤y
if x = y or no relationship can be established
Solution:
On adding both equations x + y = 55 ………..(a) On subtracting both equations y - x = 9 ……..(b) From (a) and (b), x = 23, y = 32 ∴ x < y
Q7. I. x² - 18x +77 = 0 II. 3y² - 25y + 28 = 0
if x>y
if x<y
if x≥y
if x ≤y
if x = y or no relationship can be established
Solution:
Q8. I. 2x² - 12x + 16 = 0 II. y² - 9y + 20 = 0
if x>y
if x<y
if x≥y
if x ≤y
if x = y or no relationship can be established
Solution:
I.2x² - 8x - 4x + 16 = 0 ⇒ 2x (x - 4) - 4 (x - 4) = 0 ⇒ x = 4 or 2 II. y² - 5y - 4y + 20 = 0 ⇒ y (y - 5) - 4 (y - 5) = 0 ⇒ y = 5 or 4 ∴ x ≤ y
Q9. I. 4x² = 9 II. 2y² - 9y + 10 = 0
if x>y
if x<y
if x≥y
if x ≤y
if x = y or no relationship can be established
Solution:
I. x² = 9/4 ⇒ x = ± 3/2 II. 2y² - 5y - 4y + 10 = 0 ⇒ y (2y - 5) - 2 (2y - 5) = 0 ⇒ y = 2 or 5/2 ∴ x < y
Q10. I. 7x² + 6x - 1 = 0 II. 32y² - 20y + 3 = 0
if x>y
if x<y
if x≥y
if x ≤y
if x = y or no relationship can be established
Solution:
I.7x² + 7x - x - 1 = 0 ⇒7x (x + 1) - 1 (x + 1) = 0 ⇒ x = -1 or 1/7 II. 32y² - 12y - 8y + 3 = 0 ⇒ 4y (8y - 3) - 1 (8y - 3) = 0 ⇒ y = 1/4 or 3/8 ∴ x < y
Directions (11-15): The table below shows the data regarding the minutes taken by five friends to complete different games playing alone and together on different days of a week.
Q11. If, on Thursday, Sandeep is 40% less efficient than Prashant, then what is the time taken by all the friends to complete ‘Surf sub’ playing together?
Solution:
Q12. If the ratio of efficiencies of Sandeep and Prashant, on Wednesday, is 5 : 6, then calculate the time taken by Sandeep to Finish the game ‘Candy C’ playing alone ?
12 minutes
18 minutes
15 minutes
20 minutes
None of these
Solution:
Q13. The time taken by Prashant to complete ‘COC’ is what percent more/less than the time taken by Shubham & Vishal to finish the same game playing together ?
20%
24%
25%
30%
None of these
Solution:
Q14. On Friday, the ratio of efficiency of Vishal to that of Ali is 1 : 4 and Vishal and Ali together are 25% more efficient than Subham, Sandeep and Prashant together. What is the time taken by all of them to finish TTA playing together ?
Solution:
Q15. For which game does Subham take minimum amount of time?
Bridge Town
COC
Surf Sub
NFS HP
Candy C
Solution:
By solving, time taken by Shubham to complete the game NFS HP on Tuesday is 60 min. Now, we can make out from table itself that Shubham takes minimum time (20 minutes) to complete the game ‘COC.
Dear students, as Quantitative Aptitude is an essential part of IBPS examinations. The level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section too can make one's blood run cold. As per the analysis of previous examinations, the questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. Data Interpretation and topics from arithmetic section make it hard for one to deal with the section as easily as any other section. But you should not forget that a mix of accuracy and a good number of attempts can definitely turn the situation around in Quantitative Aptitude Section. And to ease your way to ace the grades in this section, Adda247 brings to you Lakshya Complete Arithmetic and DI Batch for SBI,RBI Grade B, IBPS PO Pre+Mains and Insurance Exams By Sumit Sir (Live Classes).
All the students out there who have doubts in this subject that will be asked in various banking and insurance examinations, they are not even able to clear the concepts on their own and want to join coaching classes for the same. This Online Batch is specially brought up for those who are not able to join classroom programs due to certain reasons. Also, a huge number of students apply and appear for these examinations every year and that's the reason why the fight to get through them is real tough. It's like shape up or ship out, so students, start off your preparations right away. And all that one needs to make the cut is proper guidance so she can take steps in the right direction.
The online batch starts on 24-Jan-2019 and the classes will run on 5 weekdays (Mon-Fri) for Quantitative Aptitude Section of banking and insurance examinations. There are a total of 300 seats for the batch and the candidate is required to have a working internet connection to run the online classes without any interruptions. The candidates can freely ask their doubts during a separate doubt session and this is why you are required to have headphones/ earphones that have a mike too. The fee that is required to be paid for the batch is Rs. 3499/-.
Salient Features:
1. You can get recorded videos of all the live classes after completion of every class. It will help you with revision.
2. Save your traveling and lodging cost.
3. Get classes at home in your own comfort zone.
4. Clear all your doubts one on one with faculties during live classes.
IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.
Directions (1-10): In the passage given below there are blanks which are numbered from 1 to 10. They are to be filled with the options given below the passage against each of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence without altering its meaning. . If none of the words given in options fits in, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
Q1. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
support
undermine
enhance
frustrating
Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
Undermine: lessen the effectiveness, power, or ability of, especially gradually or insidiously.
Q2. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
pulped
grasped
grappled
Both (b) and (c)
divluged
Solution:
Pulp: withdraw (a publication) from the market and recycle the paper.
Q3. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
disengaged
secede
Both (a) and (b)
quailed
resurrected
Solution:
Resurrect: revive or revitalize (something that is inactive, disused, or forgotten).
Q4. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
entreat
Both (a) and (c)
invoked
effect
relied
Solution:
Invoke: call earnestly for.
Q5. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
Both (b) and (e)
inundate
rewarding
obsequious
punitive
Solution:
Punitive: inflicting or intended as punishment.
Q6. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
assisting
decent
malicious
blatant
Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
Malicious: characterized by malice; intending or intended to do harm.
Q7. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
enlarging
curtail
diminishing
Both (a) and (b)
addle
Solution:
Curtail: reduce in extent or quantity; impose a restriction on.
Q8. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
enmity
collateral
Both (a) and (d)
triumph
deception
Solution:
Enmity: a state or feeling of active opposition or hostility.
Q9. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
looming
Both (d) and (e)
jerking
tweak
goad
Solution:
Tweak: a fine adjustment to a mechanism or system.
Q10. Literary freedom is taken for granted in democracies, but forces that threaten or (1)……………………. it are always at work. Each age has to fight the battle afresh. In recent times, several attempts to get books withdrawn, (2)……………………… or sanitised of offending content have achieved full or partial success in India. Wendy Doniger’s The Hindus: An Alternative History was withdrawn from circulation, and A.K. Ramanujan’s essay ‘Three Hundred Ramayanas’ was dropped from a Delhi University syllabus. Tamil writer Perumal Murugan’s Madhorubagan (One Part Woman) was withdrawn by the author under mob pressure but (3)………………………….. by a Madras High Court verdict. Public order, national unity and social or religious harmony are the principles commonly (4)………………. against the practice of literary freedom. Threats to free expression, especially artistic freedom, in our times mainly come from those claiming to espouse the interests of a particular religion or social group. It is in this context that Shashi Tharoor, Congress MP and writer, has introduced a private member’s Bill in the Lok Sabha seeking to protect freedom of literature. Its objective — that “authors must be guaranteed the freedom to express their work without fear of (5)…………………….. action by the State or by sections of society” — commends itself to any society that upholds liberal values. It seeks the omission of three IPC sections, including 295A, in effect a non-denominational blasphemy law, as it targets deliberate or (6)……………………….. acts to outrage religious feelings.
Section 295A is a grossly misused section, often invoked in trivial ways to hound individuals, harass writers and (7)……………….. free expression. It deserves to be scrapped. Sections that relate to the sale of obscene books and uttering words that hurt religious feelings are also sought to be omitted. However, it is unclear why Section 153A, which punishes those who promote (8)……………….. between groups on grounds of religion, race or language, and Section 153B, which criminalises words and imputations prejudicial to national integration, do not draw Mr. Tharoor’s attention. In the process of proscribing a book, he proposes a (9)…………………….. in the form of a 15-day prohibition. Thereafter, the onus should be on the State government to approach the High Court to seek a permanent ban. It favours the scrapping of the provision in the Customs Act to ban the import of books, but makes a public order exception. Private Bills rarely become law, but they are useful in highlighting gaps in the body of law. Seen in this light, Mr. Tharoor’s initiative is most welcome as a step towards removing or diluting penal provisions that (10)………………….. literary freedom.
Both (b) and (d)
catapult
awaken
inhibit
coup
Solution:
Inhibit: hinder, restrain, or prevent (an action or process).
Directions (11-15): In each of the questions below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer.
Q11. Dire
Promote: Boost
Dreadful, appalling
Fanatic: Enthusiast
Intense: Depth
Disconcert: Perturb
Solution:
Option (b) is the most appropriate choice.
Dire- extremely serious or urgent
Dreadful- causing or involving great suffering, fear, or unhappiness; extremely bad or serious
Fanatic means a person filled with excessive and single-minded zeal, especially for an extreme religious or political cause.
Enthusiast means a person who is very interested in a particular activity or subject.
Disconcert means disturb the composure of; unsettle.
Perturb means make (someone) anxious or unsettled.
Hence the set of words in option (b) share the relationship of being the synonyms of the word ‘dire’ and to each other. Hence option (b) is the correct answer choice.
Q12. Elicited
Confiscation: Requisition
Extract, evoke
Acclaim: Exalt
Frugal: Parsimonious
Friendly: Comradely
Solution:
Elicited- evoke or draw out (a reaction, answer, or fact) from someone
Hence the set of words in option (b) share the relationship of being the synonyms of the word ‘Elicited’ and to each other.
Confiscation means the action of taking or seizing someone’s property with authority; seizure.
Requisition means a formal written demand that something should be performed or put into operation.
Exalt means Think or speak very highly of (someone or something)
Frugal means sparing or economical about money or food.
Parsimonious means very unwilling to spend money or use resources.
Comradely means friendly, amiable.
Q13. Mooted
Despicable: Abhorrent
Deceitful: Disingenuous
Cognizant: apprised
Broach, mention
Critic: Writer
Solution:
Mooted- raise (a question or topic) for discussion; suggest (an idea or possibility)
Option (d) is the most suitable choice as the answer of the question.
The set of words in option (d) share the relationship of being synonyms to the word given in bold.
Despicable means deserving hatred and contempt.
Abhorrent means inspiring disgust and loathing; repugnant.
Deceitful means guilty of or involving deceit; deceiving or misleading others.
Disingenuous means not candid or sincere, typically by pretending that one knows less about something than one really does.
Cognizant means having knowledge or awareness.
Apprised means informed or told.
Critic means a person who expresses an unfavorable opinion of something.
Q14. Espouse
Flexible: Intransigent
Shallow: Insubstantial
Adopt, reject
Authoritative: Authentic
Fatal: Lethal
Solution:
Espouse- adopt or support (a cause, belief, or way of life).
Option (c) is the correct answer as the pair of words in option (c) share the relationship of being the synonym and antonym to the word given in bold.
Flexible means able to be easily modified to respond to altered circumstances.
Intransigent means unwilling or refusing to change one’s views or to agree about something.
Shallow means of little depth Insubstantial means lacking strength and solidity.
Authoritative means commanding and self-confident; likely to be respected and obeyed.
Authentic means of undisputed origin and not a copy; genuine.
Fatal means causing death. Lethal means sufficient to cause death.
Q15. Frantic
Berserk, placid
Furtive: Sly
Meddle: Interfere
Taint: Spoil
Vicinity: Proximity
Solution:
Frantic- distraught with fear, anxiety, or other emotion
Berserk- out of control with anger or excitement; wild or frenzied
Option (a) is the correct answer as the pair of words in option (a) shares the relationship of being the synonym and antonym to the word given in bold.
Furtive means attempting to avoid notice or attention, typically because of guilt or a belief that discovery would lead to trouble; secretive.
Sly means having or showing a cunning and deceitful nature.
Meddle means Interfere in something that is not ones concern.
Taint means something with a contaminating influence or effect.
Vicinity means the area near or surrounding a particular place.
Proximity means Nearness in space, time, or relationship.
My name is Sanjeet Kaushik. I am selected as Officer Scale-1 in Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank. I completed my B.Tech (Mechanical) in 2014 and as a engineering background students prefer private job rather than government mostly. I did the same. But because of low salary & 12 hour hectic schedule job feeling was like a labour. So, I decided to change my route. My journey started in 2016 when I joined a coaching institute and a roller coaster journey commenced.
Year 2016:
SBI PO/Clerk - Failed in prelims.
IBPS PO - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
IBPS RRB PO - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
IBPS Clerk - Failed in prelims.
Andhra Bank PO - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
Syndicate Bank PO - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
Year 2017:
SBI PO/Clerk - Failed in prelims.
BOB PO - Missed final merit by 1 mark (this exam provide me hope for further preparations).
IBPS RRB PO - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
IBPS RRB Clerk - Failed in prelims.
IBPS PO/Clerk - Failed in prelims.
Year 2018:
This year my ways of preparation & the art to attempt the exam totally changed. This yielded me better results.
Syndicate Bank PO - Failed in Mains by few marks.
Canara Bank PO - Failed in Mains by 1 mark.
SBI PO - Failed in prelims.
SBI Clerk - Prelims cleared Mains failed.
BOB PO - Mains Out by 0.26 marks. Felt depressed.
IBPS RRB PO - Selected in BRKGB
IBPS RRB Clerk - Failed in prelims.
IBPS PO - Failed in prelims by 0.50 mark.
IBPS Clerk - Qualified prelims(NOT going to appear in mains examination).
That’s my journey above. I am mentioned only banking exam. I have not mentioned about insurance and other exams.
My Strategy in 2018:
It has been 2 years and I was still preparing. So, in 2018 I analysed where I lagged behind. I found out that I needed to focus more on English and GA section. As Maths and Reasoning section was going well but what made the difference in main examination was GA and English section only. Before 2018, I was practicing with practice mock test on computer but from 2018 I started using ADDA247. I here want to give credit to ADDA247 because content they provide was absolutely good.
For GA Section: Read daily current affairs and did quiz on bankersadda. For static portion, I revised twice in a month.
For Quant Section: Just clear your basics and pay more focus on DI and practice regularly with time limit and learn short tricks also. Attempt easy question first and don’t stuck on difficult one.
For Reasoning: WOW! This is my favorite subject. Reasoning is nothing but presence of your mind so try to create things in you mind means imagine what may be the solution of questions and you will find this subject very easy.
For English: As this subject is my weakest and it backfired in many exams. I have worked on it and got better results. For this section I used to listen English songs, some rules and The Hindu News paper for reading.
Friends it’s very difficult to prepare after again and again failure but you have to stand up and deliver yes I know everyone cry i am also cry when i miss by few but when you convert your tears in your dreams you feel great joy.
So friends find out your weakness and do quiz, attempt speed test (Quiz are important not Speed Test). If you attempts quiz your speed also improve attempt speed test 10-15 days before exam, you will definitely sail through the up coming exams. At last I dedicate my Success to BANKERSADDA team , My teachers and very specially to my Family without them am not able to reach here.
"Good better, best. Never let it rest. Till your good is better and your better is best".
Thanks Sanjeet for sharing your Success Story with us. Adda247 wishes you a good luck for the bright future ahead.
Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 15 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
In a certain code language- ‘white is very bad’ is written as ‘la ta ja sa’,
‘cold drinks are white’ is written as ‘ja pa ra da’
‘coffee is very cold’ is written as ‘da ta fa la’
Q1. What is the code for ‘bad’?
sa
da
ja
la
None of these
Solution:
Q2. ‘white cold coffee’ can be coded as?
sa ja ra
fa ja da
da ra at
None of these
Can’t be determined
Solution:
Q3. What is the code for ‘drinks’?
ra
pa
Either ra or pa
da
None of these
Solution:
Q4. Which of the following is the code for ‘coffee’?
ta
da
la
fa
None of these
Solution:
Q5. What does ‘ta’ stand for?
white
bad
coffee
cold
None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Eight persons namely K, P, I, N, O, L, M and J sits in two parallel rows sits opposite to each other. Four persons sits in each row. In row-1, K, P, I, N are sitting and all are facing south direction. In row-2 O, L, M, J are sitting and all are facing north direction. J sits second to the right of L, who sits opposite to the one, who is immediate neighbour of I. N sits second to the left of P. P does not sit extreme end of the line. M does not sits opposite to K.O is not neighbor of J.
Q6. Who sits opposite to P?
O
J
L
M
None of these
Solution:
Q7. Who sits second to the right of I?
P
N
O
K
None of these
Solution:
Q8. Four of the following are alike in a certain way, then which of the following does not follow the same pattern?
N
I
K
O
J
Solution:
Q9. Who sits opposite to I?
N
M
O
P
None of these
Solution:
Q10. Who is immediate neighbour of O?
K
M
L
J
None of these
Solution:
Directions (11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:
Q11. In a certain code language ‘fi ku le ja’ means ‘Indian Cricket Premier League’. Then what is the code of ‘league’? If,
I. In the given code language ‘Premier league shifted venue’ is written as ‘le hi nu ku’.
II. In the given code language ‘league venue cricket pune’ is written as ‘nu le fi un’.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q12. How is N related to D?
I. N is the only child of R. D is father of M, who is brother-in-law of S. P is the brother of M. M is married to R. P is unmarried.
II. D is married to A. P is the son of N. Q is brother of M. N is married to M. Q is the only male child of A. S is the sister of N. A is a male
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q13. On which of the following day of the week (starting from Monday and ends on Sunday) match of CSK is scheduled?
I. Dhoni captain of CSK completely remembers that match is scheduled after Wednesday but not on Sunday.
II. Jadeja correctly remembers that the match is scheduled before Friday but after Monday.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
From statement I, Dhoni remembers that the match is scheduled on either Thursday, Friday or on Saturday.
From Statement II, Jadeja remembers that the match is scheduled either on Tuesday, Wednesday or on Thursday.
So, using both the statement CSK match is scheduled on Thursday.
Q14. Some persons i.e. P, Q, A, C, M, D and S are sitting in a row such that all are facing in the north direction, who among the following sits on the right end of the row?
I. Q sits third to the left of D and both does not sit at the end of the row. S sits fourth to the right of A and one of them sits at the end of the row. C sit third to the right of P. M is not the immediate neighbour of D.
II. D sits second to right of Q. One of the immediate neighbour of D sits fifth to the right of M. S sits second to the right of A. Neither P nor C sits at the end of the row. Neither P nor C are the immediate neighbours of each other.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q15. How many people are sitting around the circle (all are facing inside)?
I. Z is sitting third to the right of C, who is sitting third to the right of A. Three persons are sitting in between F and Z.
II. Two persons are sit in between A and F who is sitting second to the right of Z. C is sitting third right of A and Three person sit between Z and C.
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
The official notification for the recruitment process of SBI PO 2019 is expected to be released in February or March this year. We can conjecture from the previous notifications that exams are held within a month or two after the release of the official notification. Many of you would be preparing for these exams for months and years whereas a few of you might be having a very casual attitude towards these exams as in "I will prepare for the exam once the authentic official notification is out."Is this the right attitude towards a national level competitive examination where lakhs of candidates would be competing against you, many of them breaking their backs for these exams for years?
Successful aspirants are always advised to make hay while the sun shines. Start preparing for it with sheer determination. You can be on the ball to face the banking examinations only if you start preparing for it right away. Organize all the things you want to do and fix your timetable around it. Understand the syllabus and the pattern by going through previous years' papers and official guidelines. Also, SBI changes the face of examination every other time. So, you need to prepare for SBI PO so you can face a bolt from the blue with poise and that is what Adda247 Publications Printed Edition Books prepare you for.
Yes students, practice with test series actually plays a very important role in your preparations. It can be your breakaway strategy and your true path to your very own authentic success or the lack thereof. And the longer you practice for, the better you get. So, don't wait in the wings, start practicing and working on your weaknesses now. If you do not do it now, you will be running short of time to do it after the release of the notification for that will be the point when most of the time is to be given to practice and the rest is to be dedicated to revision.
Adda247 Publications provides you all with a wide range of books that explain the core concepts in a way that you will find nowhere else. These books cover all the topics on that are asked, starting from basics to the highest level that could be asked in an exam. Gather the study material that is important for your preparations and get to the work to become an SBI PO this year.
IBPS Clerk Mains Examination is scheduled to be held on the 20th of this month and you are hardly left with a couple of weeks to revise everything that you have done so far. As we already know, a total of four sections are asked in the main examination of IBPS Clerk recruitment 2018-19. Out of all the four sections, the one that requires the minimal efforts to bag the maximum marks is the General Awareness Section. Unlike other sections, you don't require to perform long and complex calculations or penetrate deeply through the questions to arrive at the final solution. You just need to read the question and mark the correct option if you know it or skip on to the next one if you don't. To put it in a nutshell, it helps you bag the maximum marks in the minimum time. So, in the following points, we will be discussing how you can score 35+ marks in the General Awareness Section of IBPS Clerk Main Examination 2018-19.
1. A new trend has been observed in the pattern of the General Awareness Section of banking examinations i.e. the questions are now being asked from the current affairs of past 5-6 months.
2. Visit Current Affairs Adda on a daily basis which provides you with a better categorization of news with the list of top five categorizations on the home page of the blog itself. You can also access monthly current affairs for various competitive exams under "Monthly Archives".
3. We hope you have prepared your handwritten notes of daily current affairs of the past 5-6 months (which helps you memorize them for a longer period of time). Revise all the news before you appear for the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19.
4. Most of you have a habit of simply glancing through the headlines of important news which can cost you much-required marks in the exam for minute detail about the news are being asked in the banking and insurance examinations.
5. Static Facts are also being asked from current events. For example, "Jim Yong Kim has recently Resigns As President Of The World Bank", based on the news, we can conjecture that the static facts about World Bank can be asked in the exam.
I am Priya kumari. I have done M.Sc in Mathematics. Today I am going to share my success story with all of you. Soon after my post graduation, I joined a coaching institute in my hometown for banking preparation. I appeared in every Banking and SSC exams and also cleared preliminary & mains exam of IBPS PO as well as IBPS RRB PO and many more but could not made it in the final list.
Destiny had something else for me and then came the result of RBI assistant and I was (can't say happy or shocked) to see my Roll number in that list. But again this time also things were not in my favour.
Then I got selected in RRB CLERK 2018 but I didn't stop preparing for the exam.
MY JOURNEY WITH BANKERSADDA:
After working in the office I used to study at home in the night. I used to do sectional tests almost everyday. To be frank I am good at reasoning ability and this helped me a lot in getting selected as RRB PO.
I used to read current affairs on a daily basis and I purchased Bankersadda test series and solved it on a daily basis.
I would like to say one more thing to all of you who are preparing for banking exams that "BELIEVE IN YOURSELF , NEVER LOSE HOPE AND KEEP FAITH IN GOD."
I thank God, my mother and all my friends as well as my well wishers who supported me and motivates me in my struggling period.
Thanks Priya for sharing your Success Story with us. Adda247 wishes you a good luck for the bright future ahead.
As per today's scenario in the Banking exam even in other exams like SSC, it has become important that to solve a particular problem quickly you have to know the concept behind the question and also the way how to solve that problem quickly. Keeping in mind that thing we are providing here some important study notes and short tricks of various topics of Reasoning Ability so that a student can attempt more questions in less time (especially in Banking and SSC exams) and can make a higher probability of being selected. Best of hard work to all students. Keep using Bankersadda.
Here are the study notes of Reasoning Ability based on PUZZLES which will help you to ace your preparation.
PUZZLES
According to the latest exams like IBPS PO, RRB PO, IBPS clerk , SBI PO and SBI clerk, we analyze that more than 50-60% of the questions consists of puzzles. Therefore, rather than by saying “Reasoning Ability” section we can say “Puzzles Ability” section. Now the first question arises in our mind
What is Puzzles ??
Explanation:– Puzzles is a set of information which is given in complex or twisted form and by applying your reasoning ability you have to simplify the complex information.
Approach to attempt puzzles:–
1. In puzzles, first of all collect all the direct information which is given. 2. Arrange them in simplified form. 3. Point out all the negative information. 4. Other facts can be find out from the indirect information. 5. The most part is that in many cases there will be more than one possibility. 6. Don’t hesitate to go for possibility, take all conditions. 7. And at a point all possibilities which violates other information in puzzles except one all possibilities will be cancel. 8. By following this process, you will get the desired result.
Classification of puzzles :–
According to questions which are coming in exam we are classifying different types of puzzles:– a. Puzzles based on categorization. b. Puzzles based on comparison. c. Puzzles based on Blood Relation. d. Day/month based puzzles. e. Floor based puzzles.
Now we will discuss each types of puzzles :–
a.Puzzles based on categorization The most simple type of questions on this topic comes under this category where you would be suppose to analyze the given information you would be suppose to analyze the given information and simply arrange different variables in different categories. Examples :– There are six cities A, B, C, D, E and F and they belong to alteast one of the types of places i.e. Historical, Industrial and Hill station. B is not an industrial area. C and F belongs to all types of places. E is both industrial and Hill station. A is not a hill station. B and E are not historical places. D is not an industrial city. A and D are not historical cities. A and B are not alike.
b.Puzzles based on comparison: In this types comparison of different objects or persons have to made and conclude the final result on the basis of comparison.
Comparison can done for different variables:– (i) comparison of heights (ii) comparison of marks (iii) comparison of age, etc. Example:– Among four friend A, B, C and D. A is taller than B, who is shorter than D. D is not the tallest and A is shorter than D. Solution:– C > D > A > B (Tallest to shortest) c.Puzzles based on blood relation:– Problems of this type involve analysis of certain blood relations and then inferring on the basis of the given information. Generation tree is the important tool to solve question based on this topic. Example:– All the six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling together. B is the son of C and C is not the mother of B. A and C are a married couple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. Solutions :–
d. Day/month based puzzles:– In this type of puzzle, information will be given related to days or month. The basic step to solve this types of puzzle is to fix days/months from top to bottom and arrange information according to given condition.
Example:– Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same. J organizes workshop in company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for company F. T conducts workshop for company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for company C or G. M conducts workshop for company A but not on Tuesday. Solutions:
e. Floor based puzzle :– This is the next type of puzzle in which different persons are arranged on different floors. Information will be given in complex form, you have to simplify it by applying your puzzles ability and sometimes some more variables will be there in the question. You have to just identify the direct, negative and indirect information and solve puzzles accordingly.
Examples :– A building has eight floors 1 to 8 in such a way that ground floor in numbered 1, topmost floor is numbered 8. Eight persons G, P, M, Q, A, D and C are staying each on one of these floor mentioned above. A is staying on floor no. 6 . There is a gap of three floors between G and R. C is staying on the topmost floor. Neither P nor M is staying on floor no. 5. Q is staying in the middle of floor P and M. R is staying on floor no. 1. M is not an immediate neighbour of G. Note:– The basic rule to solve the questions of floor is to fix the floor number from top to bottom or bottom to top as information given in the question and then arrange other variables according to information of question. Solutions :–
Some time miscellaneous types of puzzles also comes in which there will be combination of two types (i.e. floor-Blood relation, Days-Blood Relation, Days and categorization etc.) so, basic rule to attempt these questions is also same.
Puzzles are always tricky so, take care of every words and sentence.
So, Dear friends puzzles is one of the most important part of reasoning section and practice is most important for this topic. As much you will practice you will get better results.
"This is all about the concept of “puzzles”. We have tried our best to make clear each and every point in puzzle. For more practice you should attempt our Mocks. "
The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!
National News
1. Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019 Passed in Lok Sabha
i. The Citizenship Amendment bill seeking to provide Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities from Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan was passed by Lok Sabha. The Bill provides for Indian citizenship to such immigrants after six years of residence in India instead of 12 years currently.
ii. Home Minister Rajnath Singh moved the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 in Lok Sabha and was passed after a discussion. The Bill seeks to amend the Citizenship Act of 1955 in order to grant citizenship to Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains, Parsis and Christians from Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Pakistan if they have lived in India for six years.
2. RBI Forms Committee To Boost Digital Payments
i. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion. The five-member committee will be headed by UIDAI’s former Chairman Nandan Nilekani.
ii. RBI stated that the committee will review the existing status of digitisation of payments and suggest ways to bridge any gaps in the ecosystem if any.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
i. The interim budget for 2019 will be presented on 1 February during the budget session of the parliament. The budget session of the Parliament to be held from 31 January to 13 February.
ii. The decision was taken in the meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
Agreements Signed
4. NHAI Collaborates with Oil Marketing Companies for Issuance of FASTags
i. To ensure easier availability of FASTags, Indian Highways Management Company Ltd. (IHMCL), a company promoted by NHAI, has signed MoUs with state-run Oil Marketing Companies (IOCL, BPC, and HPC).
ii. It will ensure availability of FASTags at petroleum outlets across India. In the first phase, the tags will be available across 50 Fuel Station in Delhi NCR, which will subsequently be expanded to outlets across India.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Dharmendra Pradhan is the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Nitin Jairam Gadkari is the Minister of Road Transport and Highways.
5. MoU On 'India-Norway Ocean Dialogue' Exchanged
i. Prime Minister of Norway Erna Solberg and Prime Minister Narendra Modi held bilateral talks in New Delhi. Prime Minister Modi said that both the countries have vibrant trade ties. MoU were exchanged on India-Norway Ocean Dialogue.
ii. Erna Solberg also called on President Ram Nath Kovind and Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu. She also delivered the Inaugural address at the Raisina Dialogue and addressed India-Norway Business Summit in New Delhi.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Norway Capital- Oslo, Currency- Norwegian krone.
6. MoU Signed Between Indian Army And PNB
i. An MoU was signed between the Indian Army and Punjab National Bank on the Defence Salary Package. The signing ceremony was chaired by the Adjutant General, Lt Gen Ashwani Kumar. ii. Salient features of the improved and updated MoU are free‘RAKSHAK PLUS’ Scheme for serving pers and veterans, overdraft facility range from Rs 0.75 to 3.0 lakhs, multicity ‘At Par’ cheques, instant credit of outstation cheques, preferential allotment of lockers at concessional AMC and free SMS alerts.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
General Bipin Rawat is the present Chief of Staff of Indian Army.
Sunil Mehta is the Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer of PNB.
PNB Headquarters in New Delhi.
Economy News
7. World Bank Pegs India’s GDP Growth At 7.3 % in 2018-19
i. India’s GDP is expected to grow at 7.3% in the fiscal year 2018-19, and 7.5% in the following two years, the World Bank has forecast, attributing it to an upswing in consumption and investment. India will continue to be the fastest growing major economy in the world, according to the World Bank.
ii. China’s economic growth is projected to slow down to 6.2% each in 2019 and 2020 and 6% in 2021, according to the January 2019 Global Economic Prospects report released by the World Bank.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Present World Bank President: Jim Yong Kim, Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States.
Appointments/Resignations
8. Pranav R Mehta Becomes 1st Indian to Head Global Solar Council
i. A visionary in the field of Solar Energy and the chairman of National Solar Energy Federation, Pranav R Mehta, has taken over as the president of Global Solar Council (GSC). He has become the first Indian to head the GSC.
ii. The Global Solar Council (GSC) was launched on December 6, 2015, following the historic United Nations Climate Change Conference (UN COP 21).
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
The Global Solar Council (GSC) has its headquarters in Washington D.C., USA.
Sports News
9. Egypt to Host 2019 African Cup of Nations
i. Seven-time champions Egypt have won the hosting rights for the 2019 edition of the African Cup of Nations. ii. Egypt beat South Africa by 16 votes to one at the Confederation of African Football's (CAF) Executive Committee.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
Egypt Capital: Cairo, Currency: Egyptian pound.
10. Sydney and Brisbane Chosen To Host $15 million ATP Cup In 2020
i. Australian cities Sydney and Brisbane have been announced as the first two host locations for the newest team event in men’s tennis for the multi-million dollar ATP Cup from 2020. ii. The third Australian city for the tournament is yet to be determined. The tournament will comprise more than 100 players from 24 nations with $15 million in prize money and 750 ATP Ranking points.
Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP) Chairman:Chris Kermode, Headquarters: London, United Kingdom.
Australia Capital: Canberra, Currency: Australian Dollar, Prime Minister: Scott Morrison.
11. 2nd Edition Of Khelo India Youth Games Begins In Pune
i. The second edition of Khelo India Youth Games has officially begun in Pune, Maharashtra. Sports Minister Rajyavardhan Rathore and Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis attended a virtual torch ceremony at the Shree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex. ii. Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the event through a video message. More than 9,000 players from different states will participate in 18 different events.
Dear Students, as per the schedule of IBPS 2018, the Main Examination for the recruitment of IBPS Specialist Officers will be conducted on 27th of January. If one gets through this phase of the examination, she will get to appear for the last phase of this examination i.e. the personal interview round. With few days remaining for this examination to be held, you must have yourself realized the dire need of keeping your casual attitude at bay and sinking your teeth into the preparations. In these last days of your preparations, plan everything out in a way that you are able to do with the syllabus and revision on time.
Practice is the only key to success and it actually plays a significant role in your preparations. It can be your breakaway strategy and your true path to your very own authentic success or the lack thereof. Your best bet at this time, when 23 days remain for the examination, would be to try taking full-length mocks on a daily basis. Here is the list of IBPS SO Mains Exam Practice Mocks that you can practice with:
IBPS SO Rajbhasha Adhikari Officer Mains 2018-19 Prime Online Test Series Package
IBPS SO IT Officer aspirants can also check out the eBook to prepare for Professional Knowledge exam. Adda247 brings the best solution for every IBPS Specialist Officer (IT) Aspirant!! Now you can study Professional Knowledge for IT Officer Exam from the ACE IT Officer Professional Knowledge eBook by Adda247 Publications.
Following is a brief syllabus for the same and also a short index of ACE IT Officer Professional Knowledge book by Adda247 Publications.
1. Software & Hardware
2. DBMS
3. DATA WAREHOUSING & DATAMINING
4. OPERATING SYSTEM
5. Networking
6. Information Security
7. Web Technology
8. Computer Organization & Microprocessor
9. Data Structure
10. Software Engineering
11. Programming Languages
12. Practice Sets
ANNEX. 1. Compiler, Interpreter, Loader and Linker
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released the result of Online Preliminary Exam for the post of Specialist Officers (SO). Candidates can check their IBPS SO Result from the link given below from the link given below. Online Preliminary Exam was held on 30th of December 2018 and the Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on 27th of January 2019 (Sunday).
Important Dates Commencement of Result: 09th of January 2019 Closure of Result: 15th of January 2019
Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions
Directions (1-5): Study the following table and answer the questions that follow. Percentage breakup of number of children in five different villages and breakup of children attending school from those villages
Q1. What is the ratio of children who are attending school from villages M, L and O together to the total number of children who are not attending the school from villages L, N and P together?
310/141
317/149
215/247
319/142
None of these
Solution:
Q2. Total number of children who are attending school from M, N and O together is what percent more or less than the total number of children who are attending school from P, L together and who are not attending school from O?
45% more
50% less
43% more
48% less
35% more
Solution:
Q3. If number of students who have not attended school from N and O together are added to the total number of students who have attended school from M, L and N then what will be the percentage increase in the number of students who were earlier attending school from M, L and N ?
12%
18%
20%
15%
17.6%
Solution:
Q4. What is the difference between average of children who are attending school from L, M, N and O and the average of children who are not attending school from P, N and M?
170
180
160
190
150
Solution:
Q5. What is the difference between the total number of children who are going school from village P, L and O together and the children who are from village O, P and M together?
600
620
698
718
730
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer Q6. A college gives admission on the basis of a student’s performance in Mathematics or Science. To get the admission, a student should get more than 88% in Mathematics or more than 83% in Science. Did Rahul get more than 88% in Mathematics ? I. Rahul got admission into the college. II. Rahul got 70% marks in Science.
If the date in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the date in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
if the data given in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Using both the statements, since Rahul got less than 83% in Science and still got admission, he must have got more than 88% in Mathematics. Hence both the statements are necessary to answer the question
Q7. In how many days can 10 men complete a work ? I. 20 men take 10 days more than 32 boys do to complete the work and one boy works at 3/4th of the rate of a man. II. One woman or one boy can do the work in 70 days while one man, one woman and one boy can do the work in 7 days.
If the date in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the date in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
if the data given in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q8. What is the cost price of the washing machine purchased by Mr. Gupta ? I. Mr. Gupta got 25% discount on the labeled price. II. Mr. Gupta sold the washing machine for Rs. 34500 at 15% profit on the labelled price.
If the date in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the date in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
if the data given in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q9. What is the distance between city P and city Q? I. Two persons A and B started simultaneously from P and Q towards each other at their respective speeds in the ratio of 4 : 5. II. B reaches P one hour earlier than A to Q. the difference between the speeds of A and B is 20 kmph.
If the date in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the date in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
if the data given in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
Q10. How many children are there in a group? I. The total age of the group of children is 630 years whereas the average age is 15 years. II. The total age of the group of children and 5 teachers is 855 years.
If the date in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the date in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
if the data given in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution:
From I: Number of children = 42
Directions (11-15): Two equations I and II are given below in each question. You have to solve these equations and give answer Q11.
if x<y
if x>y
if x≤y
if x≥y
if x=y or no relation can be established
Solution:
Q12. I. y² - x² = 32 II. y - x = 2
if x<y
if x>y
if x≤y
if x≥y
if x=y or no relation can be established
Solution:
Q13.
if x<y
if x>y
if x≤y
if x≥y
if x=y or no relation can be established
Solution:
Q14. I. 8x² + 78x + 169 = 0 II. 20y² - 117y + 169 = 0
NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.
Directions (1-15): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. Q1. The city is in a state of emergency, knowing well that a hurricane ---------------------------- and with many civilians in the storm’s path.
will be come its way
was coming its way
is coming its way
will come the way
None of the above
Solution:
’Is coming its way’ is grammatically and contextually correct here. Since the sentence is being considered in present continuous tense we will say ‘is coming’.
Q2. Full of sophistication and elegance, the etiquette teacher------------------------- princess on proper procedures.
instructed an clumsy
instructing the clumsy
instruct the clumsy
instructed the clumsy
None of the above
Solution:
‘Instructed the clumsy’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q3. Technology allows us to multitask: you can surf the web, message a friend, type up a report, listen to music and check emails ------------------------.
all at once
all of one
all in one
all in once
None of the above
Solution:
‘all at once’ is the correct option here. When we consider multitasking, we use ‘all at once’.
Q4. His skepticism of the medicine’s curative affects ------------------------------ he took the medicine for over six months.
was understandable in
were understood by
was understandable off
was understandable after
None of the above
Solution:
‘was understandable after’ is correct here. Since the subject is singular, we will consider ‘was’ and not ‘were’.
Q5. Despite being extremely nervous, Rohit ----------------------- presentation that was very engaging.
gave an intel
gave in intelligent
gave an intelligible
give an intelligible
None of the above
Solution:
‘gave an intelligible’ is correct here. The word ‘Intelligible’ starts with a vowel, so we will use ‘an’ with it.
Q6. ------------------------------ my next exam, I will need to commit myself to studying every day.
If I want to pass
If I were too pass
If I am to passing
If am to pass
None of the above
Solution:
‘If I want to pass’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q7. Excitement on a child’s face when she comes downstairs on Christmas morning to --------------------is priceless.
saw all her presents
see all her presents
see all his presents
saw all her presents
None of the above
Solution:
‘see all her presents’ is grammatically and contextually correct here. Since the child is a female, we will use ‘her’.
Q8. If I’ll have pie -------------------- its complement, whipped cream, along with it.
I must had
I must have
I many have
I must has
None of the above
Solution:
‘I must have’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q9. If you want to succeed in life, -------------------- great job and a proud productive family.
you would have a
you could have a
you could had a
you should have a
None of the above
Solution:
‘You should have a’ is correct here. Since the sentence imposes a necessary condition, therefore, should is to be used.
Q10. The young entrepreneur --------------------------- just pour money into her company if she wanted to succeed in her business venture.
needed to do more then
need too do more than
needed to do more than
need to do more then
None of the above
Solution:
‘needed to do more than’ is correct here. Since the sentence is about comparison, we will use ‘than’.
Q11. Military supremacy is a top priority for elected government officials -------------------------- .
in our country
off our country
to our country
not our country
None of the above
Solution:
‘in our country’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q12. The company swore -------------------------------- purity and were not mixing their product with harmful chemicals.
they had a process of
them had a process of
that have a process of
though have had an process of
None of the above
Solution:
‘they had a process of’ is grammatically and contextually fit for the sentence. Since the subject is singular, we will use ‘had’ and not ‘have’.
Q13. Someone -------------------------------- about themselves and never about others is not a selfless individual.
the is always worried
that were always worried
that is always worry
who is always worried
None of the above
Solution:
‘that is always worried’ is correct here.
Q14. The young children rode the tan and brown pied colored pony -------------------------------.
on the birthday party
among the birthday party
of the birthday party
off the birthday party
None of the above
Solution:
‘on the birthday party’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
Q15. After the adjudication of the detainees, the official ruling ----------------------- sent back to their home countries.
required them to been
require them to been
required them to be
require them too be
None of the above
Solution:
‘required them to be’ is grammatically and contextually correct here. In standard English we use ‘to be’ and not ‘to been’. The sentence is also in past tense.
