Quantcast
Channel: Bankersadda: Bank PO Exam Preperation Site for SBI, RBI, IBPS and SBI Clerk
Viewing all 24009 articles
Browse latest View live

IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon: 25 Days Study Plan- Day 14 | Download PDF

$
0
0

Dear Students, the mains examination of IBPS Clerk 2018 is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January. This opportunity not only provides you with a government job in a public sector bank but also a significant number of perks and emoluments. So, we are pretty sure that you wouldn't like it to slip through your fingers at the eleventh hour, Mains Exam being the final phase of this exam. How to sail through this exam? How to win this marathon against thousands of IBPS Clerk candidates? Are these questions running through your mind now? Put your mind at peace because Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the subjects that will be asked in the exam. The Quizzes are strictly based on the latest pattern of banking exams and incorporate the questions that are most likely to be asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19.



IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19 Pattern

Online Examination:


Sr. No
Name of Tests
(NOT BY SEQUENCE)
No. of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Medium of Exam
Time allotted for each
test (Separately timed)
1
General/ Financial Awareness 
50
50
English & Hindi
35 minutes
2
English Language
40
40
English
35 minutes
3
Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude
50
60
English & Hindi
45 minutes
4
Quantitative Aptitude

50
50
English & Hindi
45 minutes

Total
190 
200

160 minutes

Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF




S. No.English LanguageReasoningQuantitative AptitudeGeneral Awareness with Special Reference to Banking Industry (Especially the ones based on Current Affairs of past 5-6 months)
26th DecSentence improvementInput-Output, Circular puzzle, MiscellaneousDI (pie + table), Percentage, SI & CI Number SeriesCurrent Affairs (July 2018)
Banking Quiz
27th DecWord Association(Synonyms, Antonyms)Short puzzles, Mix puzzle, syllogismCaselet, Ratio & Proportion, Partnership, SimplificationPayment Banks, Headquarters of PSBs
Banking Quiz
28th DecReading ComprehensionDirection Sense, coded Inequality, Mix puzzleData interpretation (Missing data type), Age problems, Profit & loss, ApproximationEconomic Survey, Current Affairs (August 2018)
29th DecError SpottingBox-based Puzzle, Inequalities, Syllogism DI (Line + bar graph), Mixture & Allegation, Quadratic EquationMonetary Policy, Financial AbbreviationsTypes of Money, 
30th DecParajumbles/Sentence RearrangementSyllogism, Circular puzzle, Direction senseData interpretation (Missing table), Problems on Trains, Boat & stream, Quadratic EquationsIndian Financial Organization, Static Awareness, Mutual Funds
 31st DecStatement and Paragraph CompletionInequality, Linear puzzle, Blood relationDI (Mix type), Time & work, Time, speed & distance, Number SeriesCapital Market and Money Market, Static Awareness
1st JanFillers Coding -decoding, Double row puzzle, Logical reasoningDI (mix type), Arithmetic ( Quantity I and Quantity II), SimplificationNBFC's, BASEL Norms, Static Awareness
2nd JanSentence ConnectorsCircular Puzzle, , Coding -decoding,Machine input-outputCaselet, Pipe & cistern, mensuration, Approximation Current Affairs (September 2018)
3rd JanSentence CompletionFloor-based Puzzle, Mix puzzle,Logical reasoningDI (mix type), Data sufficiency, Quadratic EquationsNegotiable Instruments, DICGC, Government Schemes
4th JanCloze TestLinear Puzzle, Alpha-numeric series, Logical reasoningData interpretation (mix type), Probability, Permutation & Combination, Number SeriesFinancial Inclusion, Indian Bank Association
5th JanError SpottingShort Puzzles, Logical reasoning, Mix puzzleDI (missing data), Miscellaneous, SimplificationCurrent Affairs (October 2018)
6th JanStatement and Paragraph CompletionFloor based puzzle; Numbers based questions; Short puzzlesMix DI, Arithmetic (Quantity 1 & Quantity 2), Quadratic EquationsNPA & SARAFAESI, Indian Financial Organization
7th JanReading ComprehensionOrder and Ranking, Coding -decoding, Floor based puzzleCaselet, Ratio and partnership, Percentage, Number SeriesMUDRA Bank, Capital Market and Money Market
8th JanStatement and Paragraph CompletionLogical Reasoning, Linear puzzle, MiscellaneousMix DI, SI & CI, Age problems, ApproximationUnion Budget 2018-19
9th JanCloze Test, Vocabulary Coding-Decoding, Double row puzzle, Data sufficiencyMissing data DI, Profit & Loss, Mixture & Allegation, Quadratic EquationsCurrent Affairs (November 2018)
10th JanSentence Connectors, Word UsageInput-Output, Miscellaneous, Square puzzleArithmetic DI, Data Sufficiency, MensurationSmall Finance Banks, Important Committees
11th JanError Spotting/Odd one outData Sufficiency,  Blood relation, Linear puzzleMix DI, Problems on trains, Boat & Stream, SimplificationShares and Debentures, Reserve Bank of India and its policies, 
12th JanParajumbles/Sentence RearrangementDirection Sense, Syllogism, Mix puzzleMix DI, Time & Work, Speed, Time and Distance, Number SeriesCredit/Debit/Smart Cards, Government Schemes
13th JanSentence improvement, VocabularyShort Puzzles, Miscellaneous, SyllogismMix DI, Pipe and cistern, Probability, Quadratic EquationsPriority Sector Lending, 
14th JanFillersCoded blood relation, Box puzzle, Miscellaneous Mix DI, Permutation & Combinations, ApproximationNPCI and its products
15th JanReading Comprehension,StartersInequality, Miscellaneous, Circular puzzleMix DI, Quantity Based Problems, Mics.Mutual Funds, Cheque and its types
16th JanCloze TestBlood Relation, Box based puzzle, Short puzzlePractice Set 1Current Affairs (December  2018)
17th JanStatement and Paragraph Completion, Word UsageCircular Puzzle, Syllogism, Order and rankingPractice Set 2Banking Ombudsman, Types of Money
18th JanParajumble/ Sentence RearrangementFloor-based Puzzle, Direction sense, Short puzzlePractice Set 3Important Committees, World Bank/IMF/ADB/NDB/IBRD/AIIB
19th JanError Spotting, Word UsageLinear Puzzle, Alphabetical series, Machine input-outputPractice Set 4Revision


All The Best!!

     



Sentence and Paragraph Completion For IBPS Clerk Mains: 8th January 2019

$
0
0


English Language Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains 

IBPS had conducted the IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam few weeks ago and the result will be out shortly. Now the next step is to clear the mains exam Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam.


Watch Video Solutions Here







Directions (1-5): In each of the questions given below a paragraph is given with blank spaces which are numbered. Against each numbered blank space five options are given which may or may not fill the blanks. Choose the option that can fill the blank space appropriately. 

Q1. The indigenous nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, is a great achievement for India. The Indian Navy, its engineers and scientists have done us immensely proud. (1)………………………………………………………………….. : Will Arihant make us more secure, and if so, in what way? It has been universally recognised that the sole justification for having nuclear weapons is their deterrence value. If ever a nuclear bomb has to be used, (2)…………………………………………………………. The initiation of a nuclear attack would mean utter destruction, not just for the two parties involved but also for regions far beyond. The Americans got away with their bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, however controversial it was, (3)…………………………………………………………………………. Today, the situation is vastly different and far more dangerous. If nuclear weapons fail to deter the outbreak of war involving use of such weapons, they have disastrously failed in their deterrence mission. The major nuclear weapon powers, principally the U.S., have developed the myth of a nuclear triad, that consists of land-based, air-based and sea-based nuclear delivery systems. The theory is that if country A initiates a nuclear attack on country B in a first strike, country B must be in a position, even after absorbing the nuclear strike, (4)………………………………………………………………………. This is called second strike capability. In the event that country A manages to destroy the land and air-based nukes of country B, country B will still have its third leg in the shape of sea-based nuclear-tipped missiles, called SLBMs or submarine-launched ballistic missiles, for use against country A because the sea-based missiles, launched from nuclear-powered submarines, would have remained undetected and hence safe from enemy attack. (5)………………………………………………………………………….. Essentially, the argument in favour of the naval leg is not that it makes the deterrent more credible, but that, as mentioned above, it will survive for retaliation.
The question had no significance.
And the Question was answered well.
But fame brings a lot of responsibilities with it.
But it might not be inappropriate to ask
None of the Above
Solution:
"But it might not be inappropriate to ask" is grammatically and contextually correct as the blank is followed by a question.

Q2. The indigenous nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, is a great achievement for India. The Indian Navy, its engineers and scientists have done us immensely proud. (1)………………………………………………………………….. : Will Arihant make us more secure, and if so, in what way? It has been universally recognised that the sole justification for having nuclear weapons is their deterrence value. If ever a nuclear bomb has to be used, (2)…………………………………………………………. The initiation of a nuclear attack would mean utter destruction, not just for the two parties involved but also for regions far beyond. The Americans got away with their bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, however controversial it was, (3)…………………………………………………………………………. Today, the situation is vastly different and far more dangerous. If nuclear weapons fail to deter the outbreak of war involving use of such weapons, they have disastrously failed in their deterrence mission. The major nuclear weapon powers, principally the U.S., have developed the myth of a nuclear triad, that consists of land-based, air-based and sea-based nuclear delivery systems. The theory is that if country A initiates a nuclear attack on country B in a first strike, country B must be in a position, even after absorbing the nuclear strike, (4)………………………………………………………………………. This is called second strike capability. In the event that country A manages to destroy the land and air-based nukes of country B, country B will still have its third leg in the shape of sea-based nuclear-tipped missiles, called SLBMs or submarine-launched ballistic missiles, for use against country A because the sea-based missiles, launched from nuclear-powered submarines, would have remained undetected and hence safe from enemy attack. (5)………………………………………………………………………….. Essentially, the argument in favour of the naval leg is not that it makes the deterrent more credible, but that, as mentioned above, it will survive for retaliation.
it should have been capable enough.
it has destroyed its raison d’être.
a permission of the navy is needed.
it will survive for retaliation
None of the Above
Solution:
"it has destroyed its raison d’être." is grammatically and contextually correct. "raison d’être" means the most important reason or purpose for someone or something's existence.

Q3. The indigenous nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, is a great achievement for India. The Indian Navy, its engineers and scientists have done us immensely proud. (1)………………………………………………………………….. : Will Arihant make us more secure, and if so, in what way? It has been universally recognised that the sole justification for having nuclear weapons is their deterrence value. If ever a nuclear bomb has to be used, (2)…………………………………………………………. The initiation of a nuclear attack would mean utter destruction, not just for the two parties involved but also for regions far beyond. The Americans got away with their bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, however controversial it was, (3)…………………………………………………………………………. Today, the situation is vastly different and far more dangerous. If nuclear weapons fail to deter the outbreak of war involving use of such weapons, they have disastrously failed in their deterrence mission. The major nuclear weapon powers, principally the U.S., have developed the myth of a nuclear triad, that consists of land-based, air-based and sea-based nuclear delivery systems. The theory is that if country A initiates a nuclear attack on country B in a first strike, country B must be in a position, even after absorbing the nuclear strike, (4)………………………………………………………………………. This is called second strike capability. In the event that country A manages to destroy the land and air-based nukes of country B, country B will still have its third leg in the shape of sea-based nuclear-tipped missiles, called SLBMs or submarine-launched ballistic missiles, for use against country A because the sea-based missiles, launched from nuclear-powered submarines, would have remained undetected and hence safe from enemy attack. (5)………………………………………………………………………….. Essentially, the argument in favour of the naval leg is not that it makes the deterrent more credible, but that, as mentioned above, it will survive for retaliation.
because they had a monopoly of nukes at the time
does not appear to make deterrence more credible.
because the enemy might attack population centres.
because the target country would have ample time to disperse its land.
None of the Above
Solution:
"because they had a monopoly of nukes at the time " is the correct choice. 'Nukes' mean a nuclear weapon.

Q4. The indigenous nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, is a great achievement for India. The Indian Navy, its engineers and scientists have done us immensely proud. (1)………………………………………………………………….. : Will Arihant make us more secure, and if so, in what way? It has been universally recognised that the sole justification for having nuclear weapons is their deterrence value. If ever a nuclear bomb has to be used, (2)…………………………………………………………. The initiation of a nuclear attack would mean utter destruction, not just for the two parties involved but also for regions far beyond. The Americans got away with their bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, however controversial it was, (3)…………………………………………………………………………. Today, the situation is vastly different and far more dangerous. If nuclear weapons fail to deter the outbreak of war involving use of such weapons, they have disastrously failed in their deterrence mission. The major nuclear weapon powers, principally the U.S., have developed the myth of a nuclear triad, that consists of land-based, air-based and sea-based nuclear delivery systems. The theory is that if country A initiates a nuclear attack on country B in a first strike, country B must be in a position, even after absorbing the nuclear strike, (4)………………………………………………………………………. This is called second strike capability. In the event that country A manages to destroy the land and air-based nukes of country B, country B will still have its third leg in the shape of sea-based nuclear-tipped missiles, called SLBMs or submarine-launched ballistic missiles, for use against country A because the sea-based missiles, launched from nuclear-powered submarines, would have remained undetected and hence safe from enemy attack. (5)………………………………………………………………………….. Essentially, the argument in favour of the naval leg is not that it makes the deterrent more credible, but that, as mentioned above, it will survive for retaliation.
to think upon the variants of the product.
to retaliate with a massive nuclear attack on the enemy country
to perform well in the next attack.
to adapt well in the worst situation.
None of the Above
Solution:
"to retaliate with a massive nuclear attack on the enemy country " is the correct choice. 'Retaliate' means make an attack in return for a similar attack.

Q5. The indigenous nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, is a great achievement for India. The Indian Navy, its engineers and scientists have done us immensely proud. (1)………………………………………………………………….. : Will Arihant make us more secure, and if so, in what way? It has been universally recognised that the sole justification for having nuclear weapons is their deterrence value. If ever a nuclear bomb has to be used, (2)…………………………………………………………. The initiation of a nuclear attack would mean utter destruction, not just for the two parties involved but also for regions far beyond. The Americans got away with their bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, however controversial it was, (3)…………………………………………………………………………. Today, the situation is vastly different and far more dangerous. If nuclear weapons fail to deter the outbreak of war involving use of such weapons, they have disastrously failed in their deterrence mission. The major nuclear weapon powers, principally the U.S., have developed the myth of a nuclear triad, that consists of land-based, air-based and sea-based nuclear delivery systems. The theory is that if country A initiates a nuclear attack on country B in a first strike, country B must be in a position, even after absorbing the nuclear strike, (4)………………………………………………………………………. This is called second strike capability. In the event that country A manages to destroy the land and air-based nukes of country B, country B will still have its third leg in the shape of sea-based nuclear-tipped missiles, called SLBMs or submarine-launched ballistic missiles, for use against country A because the sea-based missiles, launched from nuclear-powered submarines, would have remained undetected and hence safe from enemy attack. (5)………………………………………………………………………….. Essentially, the argument in favour of the naval leg is not that it makes the deterrent more credible, but that, as mentioned above, it will survive for retaliation.
Any use of nuclear weapon, tactical or otherwise, will invite massive retaliation.
China is far ahead of India in many respects.
Thus, the rationale for the naval leg of the triad is its survivability.
We have received drawings and documents related to this standard.
None of the Above
Solution:
"Thus, the rationale for the naval leg of the triad is its survivability." is grammatically and contextually correct.

Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence or part of sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate/coherent way. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank, choose option (e) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice. 

Q6. In the event that an enemy initiates a nuclear strike, it will never be able to destroy all the land and air-based nuclear weapons of the target country. Again, the enemy might attack population centres and not nuclear weapon sites; in that case, all the nukes of the target country would be available for retaliation. In either case, the deterrence capability of the target country would remain intact. If the possession of the naval leg were to deter the enemy, ab initio, from initiating a nuclear launch, it would add to the deterrence value. …………………………………………………………………………………………..
Advocates of nuclear deterrence insist that we should thank it for the fact that a third world war has been avoided.
Survivability by itself does not appear to make deterrence more credible.
The lead time has become tight for us.
Every government that now possesses nuclear weapons claims that they deter attacks by their threat of catastrophic retaliation.
None of the Above
Solution:
"Survivability by itself does not appear to make deterrence more credible." is grammatically and contextually correct and it maintains the continuity of the sentence. 'Deterrence' means the action of discouraging an action or event through instilling doubt or fear of the consequences.

Q7. If the hostilities reach the threshold where a country may consider using nuclear weapons, it would be preceded by a period of conventional warfare. The enemy would also have to reach the conclusion that unless he uses his nuclear weapons,…………………………………………………………. A conventional conflict itself will not start before several days of negotiations, including possible mediation by external powers and the UN Security Council
some supporters even maintain that deterrence
those with the power to exterminate life have not done so.
decades of peace have not been so rare.
he would suffer a defeat that he simply cannot afford to let happen
None of the Above
Solution:
"he would suffer a defeat that he simply cannot afford to let happen" is grammatically and contextually correct and it maintains the continuity of the sentence.

Q8. China is far ahead of India in many respects. It has more warheads and more nuclear-powered submarines. Both India and China have repeatedly declared adherence to the no-first-use doctrine. So where is the justification for acquiring the naval leg of the triad? We have a territorial dispute with China, but both countries have acquired enough experience to manage and contain the conflict. It is reasonably safe to say that ………………………………………between India and China.
the situation is giving rise to a war
there will not be an all-out war involving the use of nuclear weapons
arrangements were made for the war
ties were undergoing a hard time
None of the Above
Solution:
"there will not be an all-out war involving the use of nuclear weapons" is grammatically and contextually correct.

Q9. One of the arguments in the 1960s and 1970s in favour of atom bombs was that they would be cheaper in the long run. That has not happened. The acquisition of expensive conventional platforms as well as the…………………………………………………………………………... India has been in the forefront in campaign for nuclear disarmament.
ever expanding nuclear programme has destroyed that argument
fall in prices of the equipments has overrun the agreement
horrific prospect of nuclear conflict gave both strong incentives
could threaten any potential aggressor with the catastrophic risks
None of the Above
Solution:
"ever expanding nuclear programme has destroyed that argument" is the correct choice and maintains the continuity of the paragraph.

Q10. Discussion on primary care in India focusses only on the public sector while more than 60% of care is provided by the private sector. The private sector provides primary care in most countries though it is paid for from the budget or insurance. The private sector can provide good quality primary care if there are systems to finance care and ………………………………………………………………………………
has been touted as profound strategic depth crumbles with surprising ease when subjected to critical scrutiny.
if the private sector is prepared to invest in developing the needed capacities.
by considering the core of deterrence theory: that it has worked.
y considering the core of deterrence theory: that it has worked.
None of the Above
Solution:
"if the private sector is prepared to invest in developing the needed capacities." is grammatically and contextually correct.

Directions (11-15): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence is given which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank, choose option (e) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice. 

Q11. The New Year is always looked forward to with hope, (11)………………………………….; 2018 has been a mixed bag, both globally and domestically. Globally, the growth rate in 2018 was high, particularly in the United States. But strong signs of a trade war emerged,(12)………………………………………………….. Britain is passing through the pangs of separation from the European Union. Domestically, the first quarter growth rate was high. But (13)…………………………………………………. . The rupee underwent a severe shock as crude oil prices rose, and abated after a fall in oil prices. While prices fell, agrarian distress accentuated. India’s growth rate in 2018-19 is forecast at 7.4% by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (14)…………………………………………………………………. More likely, it will be slightly lower. Looking ahead, 2019 may not show any substantial rise in the growth rate. Even though the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has stabilised, much will depend on the pickup in the investment rate. The international environment is not that conducive for growth in our foreign trade; (15)…………………………………………………………………… Perhaps the growth rate will be between 7.2% and 7.5%. Though this may be the highest growth rate of any country, it falls short of our requirements.
whatever the conditions might have been in the previous year
with all new hopes and wishes for the future
striving towards a great future with dedication
and whatever happened has been in vain
None of the Above
Solution:
"whatever the conditions might have been in the previous year" as the latter part of sentence talks about the previous year.

Q12. The New Year is always looked forward to with hope, (11)………………………………….; 2018 has been a mixed bag, both globally and domestically. Globally, the growth rate in 2018 was high, particularly in the United States. But strong signs of a trade war emerged,(12)………………………………………………….. Britain is passing through the pangs of separation from the European Union. Domestically, the first quarter growth rate was high. But (13)…………………………………………………. . The rupee underwent a severe shock as crude oil prices rose, and abated after a fall in oil prices. While prices fell, agrarian distress accentuated. India’s growth rate in 2018-19 is forecast at 7.4% by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (14)…………………………………………………………………. More likely, it will be slightly lower. Looking ahead, 2019 may not show any substantial rise in the growth rate. Even though the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has stabilised, much will depend on the pickup in the investment rate. The international environment is not that conducive for growth in our foreign trade; (15)…………………………………………………………………… Perhaps the growth rate will be between 7.2% and 7.5%. Though this may be the highest growth rate of any country, it falls short of our requirements.
gaining majority in the upcoming polls.
dimming hopes of faster international trade
paving a way for future infrastructure and technical developments
the high-growth economy in the five years preceding this as earlier thought to be
None of the Above
Solution:
"dimming hopes of faster international trade" is the correct choice and maintains the continuity of the paragraph.

Q13. The New Year is always looked forward to with hope, (11)………………………………….; 2018 has been a mixed bag, both globally and domestically. Globally, the growth rate in 2018 was high, particularly in the United States. But strong signs of a trade war emerged,(12)………………………………………………….. Britain is passing through the pangs of separation from the European Union. Domestically, the first quarter growth rate was high. But (13)…………………………………………………. . The rupee underwent a severe shock as crude oil prices rose, and abated after a fall in oil prices. While prices fell, agrarian distress accentuated. India’s growth rate in 2018-19 is forecast at 7.4% by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (14)…………………………………………………………………. More likely, it will be slightly lower. Looking ahead, 2019 may not show any substantial rise in the growth rate. Even though the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has stabilised, much will depend on the pickup in the investment rate. The international environment is not that conducive for growth in our foreign trade; (15)…………………………………………………………………… Perhaps the growth rate will be between 7.2% and 7.5%. Though this may be the highest growth rate of any country, it falls short of our requirements.
signs are good for the balance of the year
signs is not good for the balance of the year
signs are not good for the balance of the year
signs are not good of the balance in the year
None of the Above
Solution:
"signs are not good for the balance of the year" is grammatically correct.

Q14. The New Year is always looked forward to with hope, (11)………………………………….; 2018 has been a mixed bag, both globally and domestically. Globally, the growth rate in 2018 was high, particularly in the United States. But strong signs of a trade war emerged,(12)………………………………………………….. Britain is passing through the pangs of separation from the European Union. Domestically, the first quarter growth rate was high. But (13)…………………………………………………. . The rupee underwent a severe shock as crude oil prices rose, and abated after a fall in oil prices. While prices fell, agrarian distress accentuated. India’s growth rate in 2018-19 is forecast at 7.4% by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (14)…………………………………………………………………. More likely, it will be slightly lower. Looking ahead, 2019 may not show any substantial rise in the growth rate. Even though the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has stabilised, much will depend on the pickup in the investment rate. The international environment is not that conducive for growth in our foreign trade; (15)…………………………………………………………………… Perhaps the growth rate will be between 7.2% and 7.5%. Though this may be the highest growth rate of any country, it falls short of our requirements.
Both (b) and (c)
So the exercise remained more academic.
The inclusion of newer data sources, exclusion of outdated ones and making some subjective assumptions in the process.
But it looks to be a touch-and-go situation.
None of the Above
Solution:
"But it looks to be a touch-and-go situation." is the correct choice as it maintains the continuity of the paragraph.

Q15. The New Year is always looked forward to with hope, (11)………………………………….; 2018 has been a mixed bag, both globally and domestically. Globally, the growth rate in 2018 was high, particularly in the United States. But strong signs of a trade war emerged,(12)………………………………………………….. Britain is passing through the pangs of separation from the European Union. Domestically, the first quarter growth rate was high. But (13)…………………………………………………. . The rupee underwent a severe shock as crude oil prices rose, and abated after a fall in oil prices. While prices fell, agrarian distress accentuated. India’s growth rate in 2018-19 is forecast at 7.4% by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (14)…………………………………………………………………. More likely, it will be slightly lower. Looking ahead, 2019 may not show any substantial rise in the growth rate. Even though the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has stabilised, much will depend on the pickup in the investment rate. The international environment is not that conducive for growth in our foreign trade; (15)…………………………………………………………………… Perhaps the growth rate will be between 7.2% and 7.5%. Though this may be the highest growth rate of any country, it falls short of our requirements.
this will have an impact on our exports and, therefore, growth.
two successive years of good rains improved farm produce.
too early to conclude.
a direct consequence of the worsening NPA crisis.
None of the Above
Solution:
"this will have an impact on our exports and, therefore, growth" is the correct choice as it maintains the continuity of the paragraph.

               


  
 You May also like to Read:

     


Print Friendly and PDF

IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon Free PDF | Day 10-13

$
0
0

Hi students, it's the 14th Day of Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018 in which we provide you with quizzes incorporating practice questions on the three subjects viz. English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning. We hope you haven't missed a single day of practice yet. The Quizzes are strictly based on the latest pattern of banking exams and incorporate the questions that are most likely to be asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19. Here are the subject-wise PDFs with practice questions from Practice Marathon Quizzes (Day 10 - Day 13).






We are also providing you with the video solutions of everyday quizzes for you to understand them better. Here is the table enlisting the links to the video solutions of the practice questions provided in these PDFs:

Day 10Check Video Solutions
Day 11Check Video Solutions
Day 12Check Video Solutions
Day 13Check Video Solutions 



             

Fast-track Hiring To Overcome Manpower Shortage In PSBs, Says BusinessLine

$
0
0

As per a report published in the BusinessLine, Public Sector Banks of India are expected to foster recruitment for the posts of  Clerks, Probationary Officers, and Specialist Officers. A sudden fall in the registrations for these posts has been observed from the data shown by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). 

Also, 95 percent of GM level employees, 75 percent of Deputy GM level employees, and 58 percent of Additional GM level employees will retire in 2019-20. In order to avoid the sudden vacuum that could be created past the retirement of veteran bank officials in the financial year 2019-20, the PSBs need to hire employees at lower levels, the lawmakers said in a report to Parliament. 

Previously, an excerpt from the Economic Times reported that SBI, Bank of Baroda, Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank are in the process of recruiting as much as one lakh people this financial year with the aim to push new age banking. These are clear indications for mass hiring in the banking sector in the days to come.

So students, you have enormous time to get yourselves ready for the exams that will be conducted to carry out these recruitment processes. Jump on the bandwagon and set about preparing for these exams with a strategic plan. If you follow it through, you will definitely bring it off this year. All the best!!


             

IBPS CLERK MAINS | Errors Based On Pronouns | Zero To Hero | English By Saurabh Sir

$
0
0
Dear Aspirants,


IBPS CLERK MAINS | High Level Arithmetic | Day -8 | AMIT SIR


8th January 2019 |The Editorial Today | The Hindu | Editorial Discussion by VISHAL SIR | 9 A.M.




The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

           
        

Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 8th January 2019

$
0
0
Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 8th January 2019

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2019

Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018"  with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 13 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.

Watch the Video Solutions Here



Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: 

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits third to the left of P. A faces an immediate neighbor of S. Only one person sits between C and A. Only one person sits between B and D. Q and T are immediate neighbors. T does not face A and B. the one who sits second to the right of E faces Q.


Q1. How many persons are seated between B and E?

None
One
Two
Three
Can’t be determined
Solution:

Q2. Who amongst the following faces D?
P
Q
R
S
T
Solution:

Q3. Which of the following is true regarding Q?
P and R are immediate neighbor of Q.
Q sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
E is an immediate neighbor of the person who is facing Q.
S sits on the immediate left of Q.
None of these
Solution:

Q4. Who amongst the following may be sitting exactly in the middle of the rows?
A and T
D and S
D and P
P and C
A and Q
Solution:

Q5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
B
D
Q
R
S
Solution:

Directions (6-8): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. 


Q6. Statements: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.

Conclusions: 
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
If only conclusion I follow.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either I or II follows.
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
According to the statement, 80% of the total runs were made by spinners. So, I does not follow. Nothing about the opening batsman is mentioned in the statement. So, II also does not follow.

Q7. Statement: The government run company had asked its employees to declare their income and assets but it has been strongly resisted by employees union and no employee is going to declare his income.
Conclusions:
I. The employees of this company do not seem to have any additional undisclosed income besides their salary.
II. The employee’s union wants all senior officers to declare their income first.
If only conclusion I follow.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either I or II follows.
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
Neither of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Q8. Statement: The Official Secrets Act (O.S.A) enacted by the XYZ Government during the war seems to be the source of much corruption in the country ‘P’. 
Conclusions: 
I. The Official Secrets Act has to be abolished immediately to stop corruption in country ‘P’. 
II. The XYZ government wanted to encourage corruption in the government Offices.
If only conclusion I follow.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either I or II follows.
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
Only I follow and II does not follow because no government wants or intends to encourage corruption in the government offices. So it’s not valid.

Q9. Statement: The government is likely to put some money in your bank account every month by deducting a portion of the subsidy each family receives through various government welfare schemes and putting an equivalent amount of cash in the account of the beneficiary.
Which of the following has been assumed in the above statement? (An assumption is something that is not directly stated but is supposed or taken for granted.)
Demand for goods and services will go up.
Subsidy pilferage will stop.
There will be a decrease in corruption.
Banks’ profit will increase.
Bank account holders will maintain a minimum balance in their accounts.
Solution:
The transition to cash subsidy has been made with the assumption that pilferage that takes place due to middlemen will stop.

Q10. Basmati rice exporters are gearing up to top the market in China which recently decided to allow imports from India.
Which of the following can be a possible assumption in the given statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
Exporters believe, it may take a couple of years to develop this new market, which largely consumes the glutinous sticky rice.
China presents a new market for Indian exporters, who have seen a surge in volumes of basmati in recent years.
China’s market has monopoly in competition market.
Basmati rice is high in demand all over the world.
None of these.
Solution:
All the statements have the additional information which can’t be generally assumed.

Directions (11-15): The following questions are based on the five three – digit numbers given below: 

789     876     887     998     356


Q11. If 3 is added to the second digit of each of the numbers how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?

None
One
Two
Three
None of these

Q12. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will be the highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
789
876
887
356
none of these

Q13. What will be the resultant number if the second digit of the second lowest number is divided by the third digit of the highest number?
2
3
0
1
4

Q14. If 3 is substracted to the first digit and 1 is added to the last digit of each of the numbers then which of the following numbers will be the second highest number?
789
876
887
356
998

Q15. If in each number the first and the third digits are interchanged then which will be the highest number?
789
876
887
356
998

               







              

Print Friendly and PDF

IBPS Quantitative Aptitude 2019 Video Course

$
0
0

Dear students, as Quantitative Aptitude is an essential part of IBPS examinations, many of you must be anxious regarding the same. The level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section too can make one's blood run cold. As per the analysis of previous examinations, the questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. Data Interpretation and topics from arithmetic section make it hard for one to deal with the section as easily as any other section. But you should not forget that a mix of accuracy and a good number of attempts can definitely turn the situation around in Quantitative Aptitude Section.  Start your preparation of 2019 Bank Exams:Get IBPS PO: Quantitative Aptitude Video Course

The video courses of Adda247 cover up all the topics of each and every subject that you need to be excellent at for all the upcoming banking, teaching as well as SSC exams. Adda247, being cognizant of the needs of government job aspirants, has now come up with it with a cost-effective and efficient package of video courses that can be accessed anytime, anywhere without having to worry about the availability of a coaching center in your locality.



What will I get in the course?

Latest Pattern Video Course Made By The Top Faculties of The Subjects having all tricks and tips to crack the exam with regular monthly updates so that the student has a plethora of questions to practice and enhances his chances to crack examinations + latest pattern test series for testing water against lakhs of aspirants + e books to revise all the concepts at one go and practice questions without going through the videos.


Preparing for Bank Exams, also check this out:




Queries Regarding Prime Offers: Exams Covered | Pattern | Validity | Payment

$
0
0

Dear students, the highly appreciated PRIME Subscriptions on Adda247 Test Series are back on the huge demand made by our students. Now that the students are subscribing to the Packages, we are also receiving queries regarding the offers through emails and calls. So, here is the list of the questions that are being asked by our students regarding the PRIME Offers.

What is the advantage of PRIME OFFERS?
Most of the government job aspirants are preparing for more than just one job and thus appear for a significant number of exams that are conducted throughout the year. With Prime offers, one gets the test series for all the examinations under a particular sector or more than a single sector (with Combo Package). If you buy the test series for all the different examinations separately, it costs you much more than a PRIME Package. 

I am not able to make the payment using SBI Internet Banking. What to do?
This problem may arise if the internet banking of a bank is down. If you face a problem making payments through the internet banking of a bank, try doing it through some other bank. You can also pay using the online payment app Paytm. 

Will there be the test series for the exams to be held in the year 2019 also?
Yes, the mocks of all the exams will be updated as soon as the official notification for the recruitment process is out in the year 2019. Only the mocks that are promised in the package will be updated. For details of the mocks available in these packages, check What Is There In The Bank Prime Package?, and SSC PRIME: One Stop Solution To Crack All SSC Exams 2018-19.

What is the validity of the PRIME Packages?
The Bank Prime Package is available for the validity of 9 months at a price of ₹999 and 15 months at a price of ₹1199. Rest of the Prime Packages (Insurance Prime & SSC Prime) are available for a validity of 12 months at respective prices.

Are the Mocks available in these packages based on the new pattern of respective exams?
Yes, all the mocks available in the packages are based on the latest pattern of Banking, Insurance, and SSC exams. The mocks will also be updated as per the new pattern (if a change is introduced) of 2019 exams.

Which Exams are covered in these PRIME Packages?
You can check the details of the Mocks of all the exams by clicking on the following links:

Are the mocks Bilingual?
All the mocks, except for a few (which is mentioned in the details of the respective prime packages) are bilingual. For details of the mocks available in these packages, check What Is There In The Bank Prime Package?What Is There In The Insurance Prime Package? and SSC PRIME: One Stop Solution To Crack All SSC Exams 2018-19.

Is Insurance Prime also included in the Combo Prime Package?
No, only Bank Prime and SSC Prime offers will be available in the Combo Prime Package.

We hope we have resolved your queries regarding all the Prime Offers by Adda247. If you still have a doubt or any other query, mail us at gopal.anand@adda247.com or call us on 9958500766.

☎: 9958500766

✉: gopal.anand@adda247.com


             


DAY 13 | Practice Marathon for IBPS Clerk Mains: REVISION | Quant, Reasoning & English

$
0
0
Dear Readers,



Bankersadda brings to you the Revision of DAY-13 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon. In case you've missed the DAY-13 quizzes and LIVE DISCUSSIONS you still can watch the video solutions and attempt the quizzes.


Click on the link below to download the plan as PDF



Practice Marathon: Reasoning 

Practice Marathon: English Language 

Topic Covered in DAY 13: Reading Comprehension



Practice Marathon: Quantitative Aptitude 





Karnataka Bank PO Admit Card 2019 Out | Download Karnataka Bank PO Call Letter

$
0
0
Dear Aspirants,

karnataka-bank-po-admit-card-2019

Karnataka Bank PO Admit Card Released 


Karnataka Bank has released the call letter for the online exam to recruit Probationary Officers. All the candidates, who were waiting for the admit cards can download the call letter by clicking on the link provided below.

Important Dates: 
Commencement of Call letter Download: 08th January 2018
Closure of Call letter Download: 24th January 2018

               

All the Best BA'inas for Karnataka Bank PO Exam!!

Interview Tips & Tricks | Join The Live Session

$
0
0
Dear Students,


After successfully clearing IBPS PO Main, aspirants must be feeling anxious to know what is going to happen in the interview? What type of questions would be there? What one should do at the time of interview? All such questions must be striking your mind. So, to end your curiosity relating to IBPS PO interview, which is going to be conducted in the coming while, you all need to work like a charm to sail through this post. This is going to be your last step towards your dream job. So, work your fingers to the bone and join the live session with us to know more about the important tricks and tips of IBPS PO interview. So students, sweat your blood for it and join the session to be at the top before you appear in the real battle. Join the live session at 5:15 today evening. HURRY..!!

TO JOIN THE BATCH CLICK ON THE LINK:- http://bit.ly/2QOP77l



             

Challenge Yourself To IBPS Clerk Mains Face Off 2018

$
0
0

One of the most important banking examinations, that is, IBPS Clerk Main Exam is closing in on you and the date of examination is 20th January 2019. So, for those who targeted the year 2018 to make headway in a career with the banking sector and haven't succeeded this far, it's probably the last chance to take it on themselves. And that they wouldn't like this opportunity to slip through their fingers is writ large. 



If you want to make your mark, you must test where you actually stand in the toilsome competition so you can work on the shortcomings that may cost you this government job. Challenge yourself to IBPS Clerk Mains Face Off where you get to know your point on the scale that takes in all the IBPS Clerk Candidates on it. It will also get you acquainted with some of your weaknesses that you can work on in this short space of time before the exam takes place

Almost all IBPS Clerk candidates will be taking this mock for Bankersadda is the biggest platform for an All India Mock of a banking examination. So, don't pass up the chance to get it all right when the time is ripe. The mock simulates the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam and if you were not able to attempt it yesterday, you have an opportunity to attempt the Mock today as we are extending it for today. Mock will be available on 13th January 2019 on both Adda247 Online Store & Mobile App free of cost. Apply the coupon code FACE19 and there you go!!


ESIC SSO Phase-III Admit Card Out: Download Here

$
0
0
Dear Aspirants,


ESIC SSO Phase-III Admit Card

Employees' State Insurance Corporation or ESIC has released the E-admit card for SSO Phase-III. ESIC has also released a notice regarding Schedule of Phase-III examinations – Descriptive test and Computer skill test for recruitment to the post of SSO 2018. The Phase-III Examinations will be held on 13th of January 2019 (Sunday). You can download the E-Admit card for ESIC SSO Phase-III from the link given below. 

Important Dates: 
Commencement of Admit Card Download: 08th of January 2019
Closure of Admit Card Download: 13th of January 2019 




                      

All the Best BA'ians for ESIC SSO Phase-III!!

SBI PO 2019 Prelims Books Kit

$
0
0
Dear Readers,


It is the best time to start your preparation for 2019 banking sector recruitment exams and Adda247 Publication brings to you latest collection of Printed Edition Books Combos for SBI PO 2019 Prelims Exam. SBI PO is the most sought after recruitment in the banking sector and all the aspirants aiming to get selected in 2019 recruitment should start their preparation with the updated study material.

The Books Kit for SBI PO 2019 by Adda247 Publications is available in both English and Hindi Medium. Following are the details of the Books Kits available and in case of any query you can send a mail to gopal.anand@adda247.com



Books Included in this Kit ( For SBI PO Prelims 2019 Exam):
  • ACE Reasoning 
  • ACE Quant
  • ACE English
  • 10 Free SBI PO Prelims Booklets ( 10 Printed Mocks) 




Books Included in this Kit ( For SBI PO Prelims 2019 Exam):
  • ACE Reasoning 
  • ACE Quant
  • ACE English
  • 10 Free SBI PO Prelims Booklets ( 10 Printed Mocks) 


  • A Complete Book on Puzzles & Seating Arrangement
  • A Complete Book on Data Interpretation & Analysis
  • Ace Banking And Static Awareness Book (English Printed Edition)
  • "The Cracker" For Bank Mains Exams By Adda247 Publications



Current Affairs 8th January 2019: Daily GK Update

$
0
0
Dear Aspirants,

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!


Current-Affairs-8th-January-2019-2018-Daily-GK-Update
                              
                                           National News

1. 106th Session of Indian Science Congress Concludes in Jalandhar 


i. The 106th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC), 2019 concluded in Lovely Professional University, Jalandhar, Punjab. The five-day session was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi and attended by Union Science & Technology Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan.
ii. As a part of the Indian Science Congress, Women’s Science Congress was held which was inaugurated by Union Minister for Textiles & Industry Smt. Smriti Zubin Irani. The major attractions were the 55-feet, 25-ton massive robot ‘Metal Magna’ installed at the entrance gate. 



    2. 4th Edition Of Raisina Dialogue Held In New Delhi 

    i. The fourth edition of the Raisina Dialogue has begun in New Delhi. Norway Prime Minister Ms. Erna Solberg delivered inaugural address in presence of PM Narendra Modi and External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj.
    ii. The theme of the Dialogue this year is “A World Reorder: New Geometries; Fluid Partnerships; Uncertain Outcomes”. 

      3. HRD Ministry Introduced a 70-Point Grading Index To Assess The Quality Of School Education


      i. The HRD ministry has introduced a 70-point grading index to assess the quality of school education offered by states. A state performance grading will be done wherein the states will be marked out of 1,000 scores on 70 parameters.
      ii. HRD Minister Prakash Javadekar stated that it will give the correct picture of where every state stands. There will be a fair competition to improve each other's performances.

        4. In A Historic Move, Private FM Channels Permitted to Carry All  India Radio News 


        i. Union Minister of State (IC) for Information & Broadcasting and Youth Affairs & Sports, Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore (Retd.) launched the sharing of All India Radio News with private FM broadcasters. This will be done free of cost, on trial basis initially till 31st May, 2019. 
        ii. Any Private FM broadcaster which intends to broadcast the news bulletins will first have to register with News Services Division: All India Radio. 

        Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
        • Chairman of Prasar Bharati is A. Surya Prakash. 
        • CEO of Prasar Bharati is Shashi Shekhar Vempati. 

          5. 1st Ever Global Aviation Summit To Be Held In Mumbai


          i. In a first, the 2-day long Global Aviation Summit 2019 with the theme “Flying for all”will be organized by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) in collaboration with FICCI from January 15-16, 2019 in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
          ii. The summit is supported by International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Federal Aviation Administration of US (FAA), International Air Transport Association (IATA), CiviI Air Navigation Services Organisation (CANSO), Airports Council International (ACl) and Association of Asia Pacific Airlines (AAPA).

            Appointments/Resignations

            6. Sheikh Hasina Sworn-In As Bangladesh PM For 4th Term 


            i. Sheikh Hasina sworn-in as the Bangladesh Prime Minister for the fourth term. It is her third consecutive term after her victory in the 11th Parliamentary elections.
            ii. President Mohammad Abdul Hamid administered the oath of office to Sheikh Hasina in Dhaka. This is the first time Hasina is forming a cabinet with the members of her own party. 

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
            • Bangladesh Capital: Dhaka, Currency- Bangladesh taka. 


            7. Malaysia’s King Muhammad V Becomes 1st Monarch To Resign Before Completing Tenure 


            i. Malaysia’s King Muhammad V abdicated after two years on the throne, the first time a monarch has stepped down before completing their five-year tenure.
            ii. The king’s resignation took effect immediately. A week ago, the king, 49, had resumed duties after spending two months on medical leave. 

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
            •  Malaysia Capital: Kuala Lumpur, Currency: Malaysian ringgit. 


            8. Kumar Rajesh Chandra Appointed Director-General of SSB

            i. Civil Aviation Security head and senior IPS officer Kumar Rajesh Chandra was appointed as the director general of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
            ii. Chandra, a 1985-batch IPS officer of Bihar cadre, is at present the director general of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS). He has been appointed as SSB DG up to December 31, 2021, i.e., the date of his superannuation, the order said.

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam:
            • The SSB, which has about 80,000 personnel, guards India's borders with Nepal and Bhutan. 

            9. Alok Verma Reinstated As CBI Chief By Supreme Court

            i. Alok Verma has been reinstated as the CBI chief by the Supreme Court, three months after the government divested him of his powers and sent him on forced leave. Alok Verma and his deputy Rakesh Asthana were both sent on leave in October amid a bitter feud between the CBI's top two.
            ii. Supreme Court strikes down CBI Chief Alok Verma's removal. However, at present, Alok Verma cannot take any major policy decisions. Supreme Court stated that the High Power Committee under the DSPE Act needs to act within a week to consider Alok Verma's case.

            Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
            • The 46th Chief Justice of India is Mr. Ranjan Gogoi.

            10. Jim Yong Kim Resigns As President Of The World Bank

            i. World Bank President, Jim Yong Kim has made the surprise announcement that he is stepping down after six years in the post. His resignation will take effect from 1 February.
            ii. Mr. Kim, 59, was not due to leave until 2022 after he was re-elected for a second five-year term in 2017

              Economy News

              11. CSO Forecasts Indian Economy To Grow At 7.2% In 2018-19 

              i. Releasing the first advance estimates of National Income for 2018-19, Central Statistics Office (CSO) stated that the growth in GDP during 2018-19 is estimated at 7.2% as compared to the growth rate of 6.7% in 2017-18, mainly due to improvement in the performance of agriculture and manufacturing sectors.
              ii. Economic Affairs Secretary Subhash Chandra Garg described the 7.2% GDP growth projection as very healthy. Mr. Garg stated that India continued to remain the fastest growing economy in the world and at current prices, GDP grows by 12.3% rising to 188. 41 lakh crore.


              12. Per Capita Income Doubled In 7 Years: CSO

              i. The income earned by an average Indian doubled in 7 years, from Rs 63,642 per year in 2011-12 to Rs 1.25 lakh in 2018-19, the first advance estimates of national income released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) show.
              ii. The year-on-year growth in per capita income had touched its bottom in 2017-18 under the current national accounts series (the base year 2011-12) at 8.6%. In 2018-19, it has bounced back to 11.1%. Per capita net national income in nominal terms has been taken as an indicator representative of the average income per person.





                You may also like to Read:
                          

                Print Friendly and PDF

                Believe In Yourself And your Dreams Says Sachin (IBPS RRB PO) - 02

                $
                0
                0


                Hello Friends,




                My name is  Sachin T ,I am from Karnataka.I started preparing for banking exams from March 2018 .I have cleared RRB PO exam.and I have made it to the reserve list in RRB office assistant.I also have selected for IBPS PO interview.

                My strategy subject wise :

                REASONING:
                I used to solve daily quizzes of bankersadda and I also watch you tube videos of Radhey sirand Akanksha madam they were very useful as the questions were based on latest pattern . I also solve section wise mocks of bankersadda. For mains concentrate more on puzzles , seating arrangement and logical reasoning

                QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE:
                Daily quizzes ,and you tube videos of Arun sir was very helpful. For prelims concentrate more on simplification,number series ,inequalities and DI. For mains scoring areas are DI for which I used the book of bankersadda which was very helpful .It had every type Of DI and solve more number of arithmetic word problems.

                ENGLISH:
                I used to read  daily THE HINDU newspaper and I didn't focus much on grammar rules but i used to solve passages,cloze test and sentence rearrangement on daily basis.

                GENERAL AWARENESS:
                I used to note down daily current affairs in a note book separately and I used to revise weekly once and solves quizzes. For banking awareness I watched videos of Kush sir on you tube and it was useful and I followed GA capsule of bankersadda.

                If we put our best effort we will  sure reach our goals. Believe in yourself and teachers .Do hard work and smart work it will take to you to your dreams of joining banking sector. ALL THE BEST FOR UPCOMING EXAMS


                                                    
                       
                  Share Your Success stories at blogger@adda247.com

                NIACL AO Prelims Admit Card Out: Download Call Letter Here

                $
                0
                0
                Dear Aspirants,

                niacl-ao-prelims-admit-card-2018-19

                NIACL AO Prelims Admit Card & Call Letter 2018-19

                NIACL has activated the admit card link for the Administrative Officers (AO) Prelims Exam. All the students who were waiting for the admit cards can download the call letters from the link given below.

                The first stage of recruitment or the online preliminary examination (Tentative) will be held on the 30th of January 2019 (Wednesday) and the online main exam will be held on 02nd of March 2019 (Saturday).

                Important Dates
                Commencement of Call letter Download: 8th of January 2019
                Closure of Call letter Download: 30th of January 2019



                You may also like to Read:

                                  
                                        
                All The Best BA'IANS for NIACL AO Prelims Exam!!  

                Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 8th January 2019

                $
                0
                0
                Dear Aspirants,


                Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 8th January 2019


                Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO

                Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions



                Directions (1-5): Study the passage and answer the questions given. 

                Data given below shows the total number of books available in the college library which is 24,000. Ratio of medical (BDS and MBBS) to non-medical books is 7:9. Out of the total medical books (BDS and MBBS), the number of books for MBBS are 10% more than the number of books available for BDS.
                Non-medical books consist of books for management, engineering, Diploma and BSC courses. 36% of the total non-medical books are for Diploma and BSC courses and out of this,are for BSC courses. The ratio of the number of books for management to number of books for engineering courses is 21 : 27.

                Q1. The number of books available for engineering course is how much more or less than the number of books available for BDS course
                120
                140
                160
                170
                180
                Solution:

                Q2. Find the ratio of the total number of books available for MBBS and Diploma courses together to the total number of books available for management and engineering together?
                205 : 216
                216 : 205
                26 : 27
                23 : 24
                209 : 216
                Solution:

                Q3. The number of books available for management courses is what percent more or less than the number of books available for MBBS.
                Solution:

                Q4. Total number of management and engineering books together is what percent of the total number of medical books in the library.
                Solution:

                Q5. Find the difference between the total number of books for BDS and management courses together and the total number of books for engineering, BSC and Diploma courses together?
                960
                950
                940
                980
                930
                Solution:

                Directions (6-10): What approximate value will come in place of (?) in the following questions? 

                Q6. 39.98% of ? – 49.97% of 360.01 = 39.98% of 259.97
                605
                590
                710
                845
                455
                Solution:

                Q7.
                429
                529
                329
                469
                489
                Solution:

                Q8. 223.97 + 369.04 + 459.93 – 381.03 = ?
                370
                470
                572
                672
                772
                Solution:
                ? ≃ 224 + 369 + 460 – 381
                ? ≃ 1053 – 381
                ? ≃ 672

                Q9.
                13
                17
                21
                23
                27
                Solution:

                Q10. 109.97 ÷ 21.96 × 59.97 + 314.94 =? + 219.97
                495
                395
                695
                275
                345
                Solution:
                ? ≃ 110 ÷ 22 × 60 + 315 – 220
                ? ≃ 615 – 220
                ? ≃ 395

                Q11. Ratio of radius to height of a cylinder is 1 : 8. If the height of cylinder is reduced by
                then find percentage change in total surface area of cylinder.
                Solution:

                Q12. A hemispherical bowl of radius ‘R’ is melted to form four spheres of radius ‘r’. Find relation between their radii?
                2R = r
                R = 2r
                R = 3r
                4R = 3r
                2R = 3r
                Solution:

                Q13. When a sphere is cut into two hemisphere the total surface area of two hemisphere is equal to the area of circle whose radius is equal to the side of square whose area is 144 cm². Then find the radius of sphere ?
                2√3 cm
                3√6 cm
                8 cm
                2√6 cm
                6 cm
                Solution:
                Let radius of circle be r cm.
                ∴ r = a = √144 = 12 cm
                ATQ,
                Let radius of hemisphere be R.
                3πR² + 3πR² = πr²
                6πR² = π × 12 × 12
                R = √24 = 2√6 cm

                Q14. Two inlet pipes A and B can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively by working alone while an outlet pipe can empty the full tank in 8 hours . The inlet pipes are kept open for all the time but the outlet pipe was opened for one hour after every two hours .Find in how many hours will the tank be filled?
                8 hours 24 minutes
                10 hours 15 minutes
                9 hours 10 minutes
                9 hours 6 minutes
                None of these
                Solution:

                Q15. The time taken by a boat to row 12 km against the stream is same as time taken by boat to row 21 km with the stream. If speed of boat in still water is 5.5 kmph then find speed of boat is how much percent more than speed of stream?
                Solution:

                               






                You May also like to Read:



                     

                Print Friendly and PDF

                English Language Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims- 8th January 2019

                $
                0
                0


                English Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims 

                NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.






                Directions (1-7): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

                People in every workplace talk about organizational culture, that mysterious word that characterizes the qualities of a work environment. One of the key questions and assessments, when employers interview a prospective employee, explores whether the candidate is a good cultural fit. Culture is difficult to define, but you generally know when you have found an employee who appears to fit your culture. He just feels right.

                Culture is the environment that surrounds you at work all of the time. Culture is a powerful element that shapes your work enjoyment, your work relationships, and your work processes. But, culture is something that you cannot actually see, except through its physical manifestations in your workplace. In many ways, culture is like personality. In a person, the personality is made up of the values, beliefs, underlying assumptions, interests, experiences, upbringing, and habits that create a person’s behavior. Culture is made up of the values, beliefs, underlying assumptions, attitudes, and behaviors shared by a group of people. Culture is the behavior that results when a group arrives at a set of—generally unspoken and unwritten—rules for working together.

                An organization’s culture is made up of all of the life experiences each employee brings to the organization. Culture is especially influenced by the organization’s founder, executives, and other managerial staff because of their role in decision making and strategic direction. But, every employee has an impact on the culture that is developed at work.

                Q1. What categorizes the qualities of work environment?
                Manifestations
                Freedom
                Organizational culture
                Values and Beliefs
                All of the above
                Solution:
                According to the first paragraph of the passage, option (c) is correct.

                Q2. How is culture a powerful element?
                It shapes your work processes.
                It shapes your work enjoyment.
                It shapes your work relationships
                All of the above
                None of the above
                Solution:
                All of the above. Refer to paragraph 2 of the passage.

                Q3. What is an organization’s culture made of?
                The financial support of the organization
                The rise in stocks of the organization
                The life experiences only the employers bring to the organization
                The life experiences each employee brings to the organization
                None of the above
                Solution:
                ‘The life experiences each employee brings to the organization’ is the correct answer.

                Q4. What can be a suitable title of the passage?
                Organization culture- A mysterious word
                Employees make culture
                Culture is the environment that surrounds you at work
                The unspoken and unwritten culture of an Organization
                None of the above
                Solution:
                The most appropriate title of the passage is ‘Organization culture- A mysterious word’.

                Q5. Which is SIMILAR to the word prospective given in BOLD in the above passage?
                agreed
                approaching
                thirst
                prompt
                concurred
                Solution:
                ‘Prospective’ means expected or expecting to be the specified thing in the future. ‘Approaching’ is the most similar to it in meaning.

                Q6. Which is OPPOSITE to the word manifestations given in BOLD in the above passage?
                demonstration
                concealment
                display
                showing
                religious
                Solution:
                ‘Manifestation’ means demonstration or explanation. Thus, ‘concealment’ is the most opposite in meaning which means hiding.

                Q7. Which is SIMILAR to the word strategic given in BOLD in the above passage?
                unhealthy
                mysterious
                planned
                pompous
                grow
                Solution:
                ‘Strategic’ means relating to the identification of long-term or overall aims and interests and the means of achieving them. Thus, ‘planned’ is the most similar in meaning.

                Directions (8-15): In each of the following questions, a word has been used in sentences in THREE different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentences in which the usage of the word is CORRECT or APPROPRIATE. 

                Q8. TACKLE 
                (i) If the contractor doesn’t tackle the water leak rather quickly, all of the new flooring in the house will be ruined.
                (ii) Shreya tried to tackle her financial problems by filing for bankruptcy, but that effort failed when her petition was denied.
                (iii) The wind was tackle which made the ship glide faster towards our destination.
                Both (i) and (ii) are correct
                Only (i)
                Only (iii)
                All are correct
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Tackle’ means to deal with or solve a problem. In only sentences (i) and (ii) TACKLE is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q9. URGENTLY 
                (i) An operation is urgently needed if the car crash victim is to survive.
                (ii) The company is urgently seeking a manager to replace the one who was fired.
                (iii) Thanks to computers, we are urgently to calculate millions of equations and problems in a relatively short window of time.
                Only (iii)
                Both (i) and (iii)
                Both (i) and (ii)
                Both (ii) and (iii)
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Urgently’ means an emergency. In only sentence (i) and (ii) URGENTLY is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q10. CURRENT 
                (i) Grandma watches the news each night to keep herself up-to-date with the world’s current events.
                (ii) Our state of economic affairs is rather current right now, with our family barely making ends meet with the amount of money we make
                (iii) Current staff members are expected to come to a meeting to discuss the changes taking place this week.
                All are correct
                Both (i) and (iii)
                Only (ii)
                Only (i)
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Current’ means belonging to present times. In only sentences (i) and (iii) CURRENT is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q11. EXPIRE 
                (i) The milk I bought at the store will be fresh for some time, but that two week timeframe will expire sooner than I expect if I don’t drink it soon.
                (ii) Pausing until it was quiet, the teacher decided to wait until the class stopped expire before beginning the lesson.
                (iii) My driver’s license will be valid for a few more months, but coming May it will expire, and I’ll have to get it renewed.
                Both (i) and (ii)
                Both (ii) and (iii)
                Both (i) and (iii)
                Only (iii)
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Expire’ means to end. In only sentences (i) and (iii) EXPIRE is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q12. POSTPONE 
                (i) We will postpone the yard work until it stops raining.
                (ii) I think we need to postpone the meeting.
                (iii) After the church shooting, the legislators decided not to postpone the vote on gun control.
                Only (iii)
                Only (i)
                Only (ii)
                All are correct
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Postpone’ means to delay. In all the sentences POSTPONE is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q13. VIRAL 
                (i) The image of the cat doing the Macarena went viral, gaining ten thousand likes in just one day.
                (ii) A picture of a dress broke the internet, with the viral image being shared more than 20 million times.
                (iii) Because his heroic speech went viral on YouTube, the man became an internet sensation in his home town.
                Only (i)
                Only (ii)
                Both (ii) and (iii)
                All are correct
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Viral’ means an image, video, piece of information, etc. that is circulated rapidly and widely on the Internet. In all sentences VIRAL is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q14. NARRATION 
                (i) Many movies have a piece of narration in the beginning to provide the audience with information about the setting.
                (ii) My state of dress is usually quite casual, but I decided to wear something narration fancy since I would be attending a somewhat formal dinner tonight.
                (iii) In some plays, there is someone that focuses on narration in-between acts to tell the audience what has been going on between one act and the next.
                Both (i) and (iii)
                Only (ii)
                Only (iii)
                Both (ii) and (iii)
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Narration’ means the action or process of narrating a story. In sentences (i) and (iii) NARRATION is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                Q15. EXECUTE 
                (i) To execute the maintenance request, new supplies need to be ordered.
                (ii) It was difficult to execute the detailed procedures, but the first-rate manager was able to keep things in order.
                (iii) The teacher was shocked when her normally rebellious class became execute.
                Only (iii)
                Both (i) and (iii)
                Both (ii) and (i)
                Only (i)
                None is correct
                Solution:
                ‘Execute’ means to deal with or solve a problem. In sentences (ii) and (i) EXECUTE is used grammatically and contextually correct.

                               

                     

                Print Friendly and PDF


                Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 8th January 2019

                $
                0
                0
                Dear Aspirants,

                Reasoning Questions for NIACL AO 2019

                Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.



                Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the following questions: 


                Eight persons are sitting around a circular table in such a way that four are facing center and rest are facing outside. A sits second to the left of both E and F. G sits second to the left of B. G is not neighbor of E. A faces opposite direction to C. H sits third to the left of C, who faces outside. H and D face same direction as C. B sits opposite to D and is not neighbor of A.




                Q1. Who among the following faces outside?

                B
                G
                F
                D
                none of these
                Solution:

                Q2. How many persons are sitting between D and G ( from right of D)?
                four
                three
                two
                one
                none of these
                Solution:

                Q3. Who among the following sits opposite to C?
                A
                G
                F
                D
                none of these
                Solution:

                Q4. Which of the following sits second to the right of H?
                B
                G
                F
                D
                none of these
                Solution:

                Q5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which among the following does not belong to the group?
                B
                E
                D
                F
                A
                Solution:

                Directions (6-10): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions numbered I & II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 



                Q6. Statements: 

                All marks are feed.
                All feed are food.
                No feed is a fruit. 
                Conclusions: 
                I. Some food are fruit.
                II. Some food are not fruit.
                If only conclusion I is true
                If only conclusion II is true
                If either conclusion I or II is true
                If neither conclusion I nor II is true
                If both conclusion I and II are true
                Solution:

                Q7. Statements: 
                All marks are feed.
                All feed are food.
                No feed is a fruit.
                Conclusions: 
                I. Some fruits can be marks.
                II. At least some fruit are food.
                If only conclusion I is true
                If only conclusion II is true
                If either conclusion I or II is true
                If neither conclusion I nor II is true
                If both conclusion I and II are true
                Solution:

                Q8. Statements: 
                All files are boxes.
                Some boxes are not cartoons.
                Some cartoon are plastic.
                Conclusions: 
                I. Some cartoon are file .
                II. All cartoon can be file .
                If only conclusion I is true
                If only conclusion II is true
                If either conclusion I or II is true
                If neither conclusion I nor II is true
                If both conclusion I and II are true
                Solution:

                Q9. Statements: 
                All desks are chairs.
                Some seat are desk.
                No table is desk.
                Conclusions: 
                I. Some chairs are seats.
                II. All seat can be table.
                If only conclusion I is true
                If only conclusion II is true
                If either conclusion I or II is true
                If neither conclusion I nor II is true
                If both conclusion I and II are true
                Solution:

                Q10. Statements: 
                Some Rat are Pay.
                All Rat are pal.
                Some pal are pulp.
                Conclusions: 
                I. some pay are pulp.
                II. some pay are not pulp.
                If only conclusion I is true
                If only conclusion II is true
                If either conclusion I or II is true
                If neither conclusion I nor II is true
                If both conclusion I and II are true
                Solution:

                Directions (11 - 12): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. 


                A person starts from point A and walks 10 m towards South to reach point B. He then takes a right turn and walks 15 m to reach point C. Now he walks 6 m to reach point D after taking a left turn. Finally, he takes a left turn, walks 15 m and stops at point Q.




                Q11. Towards which direction was the Point B with respect to point D?

                North West
                East
                South east
                West
                North east
                Solution:

                Q12. Towards which direction was the Point C with respect to point Q?
                North West
                East
                South
                West
                North
                Solution:

                Directions (13-15): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow: 


                Rajesh starts from his home, walks 14 m towards the west, takes a right turn and walks 4 m. He then takes right turn, walks 2 m and stops. Harsh also starts from Rajesh’s home, walks 14 m towards the north, then takes a left turn and walks 20 m before stopping.




                Q13. What is the direction of Harsh ’s final position with respect to Rajesh’s final position?

                South
                Southwest
                Southeast
                Northeast
                None of these
                Solution:

                Q14. What is the direction of Harsh’s final position with respect to Rajesh’s Home?
                South
                Southwest
                Southeast
                Northeast
                Northwest
                Solution:

                Q15. If Rajesh walks a distance of 10m in north from his final position, then what is the distance of Rajesh’s new position from Harsh’s final position and in which direction he is standing now with respect to Harsh’s final position?
                12 m, east
                8 m, west
                6 m, east
                8 m, east
                10 m, north
                Solution:

                               





                You may also like to Read:

                     


                Print Friendly and PDF
                Viewing all 24009 articles
                Browse latest View live