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Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 6th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 5:05 am
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Dear Aspirants,


Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2019

Reasoning Section can make or break one's chances to ace any banking examination. Practising with sample questions is an onerous task for that's the only key to ace this section of competitive exams. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018"  with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 12 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt this Reasoning quiz and win the marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.

Watch the Video Solutions Here


Directions (1–5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions below. 

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H live on eight different floors from top to bottom such as ground floor is numbered as 1 and top floor is numbered as 8. Each of them like different colours viz. Blue, Black, Green, Orange, Pink, Red, White, Yellow. B lives on third floor and also like Red color. Only three persons live between A and F. The one who likes Blue color lives immediately above the one who likes Pink color. A lives on an even numbered floor. Only one person lives between the one who likes Red color and E. Only one person lives between H and D. Only two persons live between E and G, who likes Pink color. Only one person lives between the one who likes Green color and the one who likes Yellow color. Only two persons live between the one who likes White color and the one who likes Blue color. F neither likes Green nor Yellow color. C does not like Yellow color. H lives above A. E does not like White and Black color.

Q1. Who among the following likes Orange color?
C
E
H
B
None of these
Solution:

Q2. D lives on which of the following floor?
5th floor
4th floor
7th floor
2nd floor
None of these
Solution:

Q3. How many persons live between A and B?
One
Three
Two
Four
None of these
Solution:

Q4. H likes which of the following color?
Blue
White
Pink
Black
None of these
Solution:

Q5. Which of the following combination is true?
E-White-1st floor
D-Blue-6th floor
F-Green-5th floor
C-Yellow-7th floor
G-Pink-4th floor
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following series carefully and answer the questions. 

6 1 2 3 5 7 8 9 7 1 3 5 7 4 6 9 5 8 6 1 4 2 6 3 9 7 5 9 4 2 1 8

Q6. Which of the following digit is at 8th to the right of the one which is 7th from the left end?
9
7
1
6
None of these

Q7. Which of the following digit is exactly between the one, which is 16th from left end and which is 9th from right end?
9
1
5
6
None of these

Q8. How many even digits are immediately preceded and succeeded by an odd number?
Three
More than three
One
Two
None of these

Q9. How many odd digits are there which are immediately succeeded by a perfect square?
Three
Four
Five
Six
None of these

Q10. How many 7’s are in the above statement there which are immediately preceded by 5?
Three
More than three
One
Two
None of these

Directions (11-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: 

Q is to the west of R, which is to the east of N. The distance between N and P is 50m and that between Q and R is 40m. P is to the west or north of Q. The distance between R and N is 70m. 

Q11. In which direction is P with respect to R?
West
Northwest
Southeast
East
Either (a) or (b)
Solution:

Q12. If P is in the north of Q, then what is the distance between P and Q?
30m
35m
50m
40m
None of these
Solution:

Directions (13-14): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions: 

B&C are sisters of X. C has only a son A,who is married to F. B has only a daughter Q, who is married to Z. A is brother-in-law of T.

Q13. How is X related to A, according to the blood relation established?
uncle
aunt
mother
either (a) or (b)
wife
Solution:

Q14. How is Z related to A, according to the blood relation established?
brother-in law
brother
cousin
husband
none of these
Solution:

Q15. Point A is 3m north of point B. Point C is in 4m west of point D. Point E is 5m to the south of point D. Point E is to the south east of point A. Point C is the east of point B. Distance between point B and C is 1m. Then what is the shortest distance between point A and E?
√39 m
√67 m
√(89) m
9m
None of these

               





         

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Only Two Weeks Left | Practice Hard To Crack IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19

January 5, 2019, 4:13 am
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Dear Students, as per the schedule of IBPS 2018, the main examination for the recruitment of IBPS Clerks will be conducted on 20th of January. If one gets through this phase of the examination, she will be selected as a Clerk in a Public Sector Bank of India. With only a couple of weeks remaining for this examination to be held, you must have yourself realized the dire need of keeping your casual attitude at bay and sinking your teeth into the preparations. In these last days of your preparations plan everything in a way that you are able to do with the syllabus and revision on time.

Students, while you prepare for this examination, you should not overlook the fact that stressing about your preparations or the examination will do no good at all. You should always follow a rule that says, "when the going gets tough, the tough get going." Your best bet at this time, when just two weeks remain for the examination, would be to make the best use of the knowledge that you have acquired through all these months of preparation. Here are a few important points that you need to focus on during this last week of your preparation:

  • Revise all the topics that you are excellent at. Sort the important topics into a checklist and settle on how each and every point is to be revised before the exam is held. It will help you focus your learning and during the examination, you won’t be like, “Gee! I was so good at this topic. I could have done better had I revised it well.”
  • Avoid picking up a new topic that you are not so good at as. By doing that in the last days of your preparations, you will only be juggling frogs. So, stick to what can help you bag maximum score in this examination.
  • Too much pressure and anxiety can affect your performance negatively. Stay positive so you can handle it all with poise.
  • Practice is the only key to success. It actually plays a very important role in your preparations. It can be your breakaway strategy and your true path to your very own authentic success or the lack thereof. Try focusing on full-length mocks instead of attempting the topic wise quizzes in the last few days of your preparations.
  • Give special importance to the accuracy with which you attempt the examination. You need to keep the accuracy percentage to a minimum of 95%. If it is lesser then work on it till you get it mended.


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Current Affairs 5th January 2019: Daily GK Update

January 5, 2019, 5:18 am
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Dear Aspirants,

The General Awareness Section of Banking Exams covers numerous sections in it like Banking Awareness, Static GK, and Current Affairs. But the most important thing that you might have noticed is that both the Banking Awareness and Static Awareness questions asked in the General Awareness Section are based on Current Affairs only. The questions on Static and Banking Awareness are related to the countries, events or anything that has been in news for a while. Here is the Daily GK Update to get you acquainted with the top events that made the headlines today!!


Current-Affairs-5th-January-2019-2018-Daily-GK-Update

                              
                                           National News

1: Government Launches  ‘Swachh Survekshan 2019’

i: Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister, Hardeep Singh Puri, launched the ‘Swachh Survekshan 2019’, the fourth edition of the annual nationwide cleanliness survey of urban India in New Delhi.
ii: The Swachh Survekshan 2019 aims to evaluate the achievements in the cleanliness level in urban areas of the country. It is launched as a part of ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • The survey will cover 40 crore people across over 4000 towns and cities.
  • Swachh Survekshan 2019, completely digital and paperless survey, will be completed in a record time of 28 days.

2: 6 Monuments Declared Of National Importance In 2018 By ASI

i. The Ministry of Culture announced that Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) declared 6 monuments as ‘protected and of national importance’ under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, in 2018.

These sites are:
  • 125-year-old Old High Court Building in Nagpur, Maharashtra,
  • The Group of Temples in Ranipur Jharail in Bolangir district of Odisha,
  • 2 Mughal era monuments in Agra- Haveli of Agha Khan and Hathi Khana,
  • The NeemranaBaori in Alwar district of Rajasthan,
  • The Vishnu Temple in Kotali, Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand.

3: New Delhi World Book Fair Begins
i: The 27th New Delhi World Book Fair has begun at Pragati Maidan. Human Resources Development Minister Prakash Javadekar inaugurated the 9-day annual event.
ii: The theme of this year is 'Readers with Special Needs'.

4: Indian Panorama Film Festival Begins In New Delhi

i: Indian Panorama Film Festival has begun at Siri Fort Auditorium in New Delhi. Information and Broadcasting Secretary Amit Khare Inaugurated the Festival.
ii: A total of 26 Feature Films and 21 Non-Feature Films will be screened during the festival. The festival is being organized by the Directorate of Film Festivals, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:

  • Minister of Information and Broadcasting: Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (Minister of State).


5: NGT Imposes Rs 100 Cr Fine On Meghalaya Govt

i: The National Green Tribunal has imposed a fine of 100 crore rupees on Meghalaya government for its failure to curb illegal coal mining in the state.
ii: The amount of the fine has to be deposited with the Central Pollution Control Board within two months. The action comes after a high-level committee submitted an adverse report to a bench headed by NGT chairperson AK Goel.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • Meghalaya CM: Conrad Sangma, Governor: Tathagata Roy.

                                                            Sports News 

6: National Table Tennis Championship Begins In Cuttack

i: The 80th National Table Tennis Championship began at Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium in Cuttack. As many as 35 teams, including 550 players from different parts of the country are participating in the mega championship.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:

  • Odisha CM: Naveen Patnaik, Governor: Ganeshi Lal.

Banking News 

7: ICICI Bank, SBFC Joined Hands To Provide Loans Worth Rs. 1 Crore To MSMEs For 15-year Tenure
i: ICICI Bank, in a first-of-its-kind programme, signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Small Business FinCredit India Pvt. Ltd. (SBFC), a systemically important Non-Banking Finance Company for entrepreneurs, to jointly provide credit worth up to Rs 1 crore to MSMEs for a tenure of 15 years.
ii: Under this arrangement, ICICI Bank will co-originate loan against property with SBFC at a mutually agreed ratio.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • ICICI Bank Headquarters: Mumbai, MD& CEO: Mr. Sandeep Bakshi, Tagline: Hum Hain Na!
Ranks and Reports 

8: Andhra Tops ACI's Ease Of Doing Business Index

i: Andhra Pradesh emerged on top of Asia Competitiveness Institute (ACI),Singapore's 2018 Ease of Doing Business (EDB) Index ABC rankings for economies of 21 states of India, while Maharashtra and Delhi came in second and third place, respectively.
ii: EDB index is based upon three parameters called ABC - Attractiveness to Investors, Business Friendliness and Competitiveness Policies. Andhra Pradesh rose from the 5th rank in 2016 to the top spot in 2018.

Static/Current Takeaways Important For IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018:
  • Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister: N. Chandrababu Naidu, Governor: E. S. L. Narasimhan, Capital: Amaravati
Miscellaneous

9: Vijay Mallya First Tycoon To Be Named "Fugitive Economic Offender"

i: Vijay Mallya became the first tycoon to be charged under a new anti-fraud law, with a court in Mumbai naming him as an offender under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018.
ii: According to the new law, a fugitive economic offender is a person against whom an arrest warrant has been issued for his or her involvement in economic offenses involving at least Rs. 100 crore or more and has left India to avoid prosecution.





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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 5th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 6:13 am
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Dear Aspirants,
Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 5th January 2019

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO


Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions



Directions (1-5): What will come at the place of question(?) marks in the following number series: 

Q1. 4, ?, 22, 46, 94, 190
12
10
15
8
6
Solution:

Q2. 45, 74, 97, 116, 133, ?
120
147
145
146
148
Solution:

Q3. 1, 1, 2, 6, 28, ?
232
224
226
192
222
Solution:

Q4. 12, 10, 17, 47, 183, ?
897
906
909
903
912
Solution:

Q5. 68, 65, 60, 51, 34, ?
4
5
3
2
1
Solution:

Directions (6-10): The given below pie chart shows the percentage distribution of daily consumption of quantity of water by five different families in a building. Read the pie-chart carefully and answer the following questions. 

Total quantity of water consumed in a day =7,000 liters. 
Note- Total quantity of water available = Total quantity of water consumed + total quantity of unused water


Q6. The average of quantity of water consumed by families P and S is what percent more/less than the average of quantity of water consumed by families R and U?
Solution:

Q7. If 87.5% of the quantity of water available is consumed by all families, Then, find the ratio of quantity of unused water to the difference of the quantity of water consumed by families S and Q?
6 : 7
44 : 45
62 : 63
20 : 21
14 : 15
Solution:

Q8. Find the ratio of the quantity of water consumed by family S and U together to the quantity of water consumed by families P and R together?
11 : 4
5 : 4
3 : 2
13 : 8
15 : 8
Solution:

Q9.of quantity of water consumed by family S is what percent of quantity of water consumed by R. 
Solution:

Q10. The difference of the quantity of water consumed by families U and S is how much more than the difference of the quantity of water consumed by family Q and R?
350 liter
320 liter
330 liter
360 liter
340 liter
Solution:

Q11. Shalini’s present age is five times of her daughter’s present age and the ratio between Shalini’s present age to her father’s present age is 2 : 5. If the average age of all the three 6 years hence will be 43 years, then find the ratio of present ages of her daughter to the difference of the ages of Shalini and her father?
1 : 12
2 : 13
1 : 7
2 :15
1 : 8
Solution:

Q12. Kishan and Bhavya appear in an interview for a vacancy. The probability of Kishan’s selection is 1/7 and that of Bhavya’s selection is 1/5. What is the probability that one of the them will be selected?
5/7
4/5
2/7
3/7
1/7
Solution:

Q13. A circular road runs around a circular ground. If the radius of the ground is 3.5m and the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and that of the inner circle is 88 m, then the area of the road is
920 m²
918 m²
924 m²
926 m²
824 m²
Solution:

Q14. How many different 5 digits numbers can be made from the first 7 whole numbers, using each digit only once?
2160
2520
7776
3360
5040
Solution:

Q15. Chiru goes to a shop to buy some bananas but some-how he managed to save Rs. 3 per 4 bananas and thus purchased 8 dozen bananas instead of 5 dozen banana. Then, find the amount he has initially with him?
Rs 100
Rs 160
Rs 80
Rs 200
Rs 120
Solution:

               






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English Language Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims Exam - 5th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 7:06 am
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Dear Aspirants, 


English Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims 


NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.






Directions (1-5)- Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed. 

 Girl Education in India is largely essential for the growth of the nation because girls can do most of the things better than the boys. Nowadays girl education is necessary and is also compulsory because girls are the future of the country. In India, girl’s education is necessary as to develop socially and economically. Educated women yield a positive impact on Indian society through their contribution in professional fields like – medical, defense services, science and technology. They do good business and are also well-versed in handling their home and office. An improved economy and society are the outcome of girl’s education. Educated women can also help in controlling the population of the country by marrying at the right or later age in comparison (A) ----------------------------.

Women education in early Indian society was quite good but in the middle age, it was not because of numerous limitations towards women. However, again it is getting improved and better day by day as people in India have understood the fact that without the growth and development of women, the growth of the country is not possible. It is very true that equivalent expansion of both sexes will boost the economic and social growth in every area of the country.

Q1. In which of the following fields can women efficiently contribute as mentioned above in the passage?
medical
science and technology
defense services
None of the above
All of the above
Solution:
According to paragraph 1 of the above given passage all of the following option a,b and c are correct.

Q2. Without which important factor growth of a nation is not possible?
Development and growth of women
Growth and development of men
Education of senior citizen
All of the above
None of the above
Solution:
Refer paragraph 2 of the above given passage.

Q3. What should come in place of A marked in BOLD in the above passage?
to the unhealthy women
to the uneducated women
to the illiterate women
to the cautious women
None of the above
Solution:
‘to the uneducated women’ is correct here, as contextually the comparison is being done to the educated women.

Q4. Which is OPPOSITE to the word EQUIVALENT marked in BOLD in the above passage?
real
benevolent
similar
different
equal
Solution:
Equivalent means equal or similar. Therefore, different is the correct option here.

Q5. Which is SIMILAR to the word COMPULSORY marked in BOLD in the above passage?
benefactor
patronage
actual
necessary
factual
Solution:
Compulsory means something that has to be done. Therefore, necessary means the same and is the correct option.

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence is given which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank. Choose option (e) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice. 

Q6. Education helps a girl become ------------------------------------ while she knows her rights and women empowerment which helps her to fight against the problem of gender inequality.
financially dependent
economical and independence
financial stable
economically independent
None of these
Solution:
‘Economically independent’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q7. Population density is a parameter ---------------------------- population figure of a place by its area.
derived by dividing the
segregated by without the
multiplied for adding the
subtracting then multiplying into
None of these
Solution:
’Derived by dividing the’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q8. ----------------------------------------- to commit suicide are required to be paid attention immediately, as the farmers toil tirelessly to produce grain for us without which we can’t survive.
The issues of compelling all farmers to
The issues compelling any farmers off
The issue compel an farming to
The issues compelling the farmers
None of these
Solution:
‘The issues compelling the farmers ’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q9. It is due to the liberalization and globalization that the import of food grains at cheaper prices has already begun and on the other side, farmers in our country ---------------------------- their ready crops right in the fields.
will forced to burn
are forced to burn
was forcing to burn
is forcing to burning
None of these
Solution:
‘Are forced to burn’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q10. For an agricultural country like India, farmers’ suicide is an extremely worrying situation and it certainly is a national -------------------------------------- immediate solution.
problem which demands
problems are demanding
problem who demand
problem worth demand
None of these
Solution:
‘Problem which demands’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Directions (11-15): In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space. Below each such sentence, there are five options with one word each. Fill up the blank with the word that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. 

Q11. In India, natural calamities such as floods, droughts, cyclones and earthquakes have caused ----------------- damage and disruption.
disaster
opulent
widespread
eloquent
hilarious
Solution:
‘Widespread’ means something taking place in a vast form.

Q12. There is an urgent need to focus our attention on natural disasters that are --------------- place in the world due to damage to the environment.
taking
going
happen
waking
happening
Solution:
‘Taking’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q13. There is increasing consciousness across the world about the environment in the wake of natural calamities, but it is not making any ---------------------- on the actual ground.
serious
agriculture
displacement
difference
spiritual
Solution:
‘Difference’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q14. Environmental ---------------------------- should be at the center of all development projects.
considerations
damage
seriousness
concerning
taking
Solution:
‘Considerations’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

Q15. Despite tremendous scientific and technological -----------------------------, we do not exactly know when and where a particular disaster will strike.
increasing
advancements
decreasing
wanted
fluctuating
Solution:
‘Advancements’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.

               




         


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Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 5th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 7:53 am
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Dear Aspirants,

Reasoning Questions for NIACL AO 2019

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.



Directions (1-5): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question below. 

Seven different boxes i.e. J, K, L, M, N, O and G of different colours i.e. Blue, Yellow, Black, Pink, Violet, White and Brown, but not necessarily in the same order are kept in a rack from top to bottom. 

Box which is of Pink colour is immediately above box G. Box which is of Blue colour is immediately above box J. Box M is above the Blue colour box. Box, which is of Black colour is above box M but not immediately above box M. There are only two boxes between box M and the box, which is of Blue colour. Only three boxes are between box L and the box, which is of Black colour. Box, which is of Brown colour is immediately above box L. Only one box is there between box K and box N. Box K is above box N. Neither box K nor box J is of Violet colour. Box J is not of Yellow colour.

Q1. How many boxes is/are there between box M and box G?
One
Two
Three
Four
None
Solution:

Q2. What is the colour of box ‘O’?
Brown
Blue
Black
Pink
Can’t be determined.
Solution:

Q3. Find the pair of Box and colour which is not correct?
K-Pink
O-Black
J-White
G-Blue
N- Brown
Solution:

Q4. Which of the following condition is correct regarding Violet colour box with respect to box N?
There are one box between box N and Violet colour box.
Box N is immediately above of Violet colour box.
Violet colour box is immediately above box N.
All the above is true
None of the above is true.
Solution:

Q5. Which of the following colour belongs to box ‘J’?
Blue
Pink
Violet
Yellow
None of these.
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions: 

Eight family members M, I, L, G, N, S, K, J are sitting around a circular table. All three females are sitting together. There are 3 generations in the family and 3 married couple. L is to the immediate left of G. Both the immediate neighbors of K are male. G sits immediate left to her daughter. I is one of the females. K who is father-in -law of I and sits 4th to the left of I. G has two children I and M. Only L sits between G &N. M sits opposite to his mother. N is son of L, who is next to her mother in law i.e G .M is husband of L. J ,who is son of K sits to immidiate right of G’s husband.

Q6. Who sits 2nd to the left of the one who is 3rd left to S?
K
L
M
N
None of these
Solution:

Q7. How is G related to J?
Nephew
Son
Mother-in-law
Son-in-law
None of these
Solution:

Q8. Who is 2nd to the right of S?
J
M
I
G
None of these
Solution:

Q9. Which of the following represents the group of females?
I,L,K
G,I,L
M,N,S
S,G,K
None of these
Solution:

Q10. How is L related to I?
Brother -in-law
Sister
Sister-in-law
Nephew
None of these
Solution:

Directions (11–15): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Given answer 

Q11.Statement:
X≤ V≤ Z<F>A;Z>Q 
Conclusion :
I. Q>V 
II.V≥Q
if only conclusion I is true.
if only conclusion II is true.
if either conclusion I or II is true.
if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
if both conclusions I and II are true.
Solution:
I. Q>V(false)
II.V≥Q(false)

Q12. Statement:
I<B>C≥E≥D;C=O>T
Conclusion :
I. B>T
II. C≥D

if only conclusion I is true.
if only conclusion II is true.
if either conclusion I or II is true.
if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
if both conclusions I and II are true.
Solution:
I.B>T(true)
II.C≥D(true)

Q13. Statement:
T>R<O>F>L<E 
Conclusion : 
I. O>L
II. R>E
if only conclusion I is true.
if only conclusion II is true.
if either conclusion I or II is true.
if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
if both conclusions I and II are true.
Solution:
I.O>L(true)
II.R>E(false)

Q14.Statement:
A≥B<C<D;E<D;C=F 
Conclusion :
I. A>C
II. D>B
if only conclusion I is true.
if only conclusion II is true.
if either conclusion I or II is true.
if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
if both conclusions I and II are true.
Solution:
I.A>C (false)
II.D>B(true)

Q15. Statement:
D<E<F=Q≥H;H>P<Y
Conclusion :
I. Q≥P
II. E≥H
if only conclusion I is true.
if only conclusion II is true.
if either conclusion I or II is true.
if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
if both conclusions I and II are true.
Solution:
I.Q≥P(false)
II.E≥H(false)

               





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IBPS SO 2018 Professional Knowledge Quiz for HR | Trade Union Act 1926

January 5, 2019, 8:44 am
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Test your Professional Knowledge of HR with this questionnaire to prepare for IBPS HR Officer Examination. To score in IBPS SO (HR) Professional Knowledge Test candidate must have adequate knowledge of Industrial Relations, Job Evaluation, Human Resource Planning, Labour Laws, Training and Development and more. This quiz covers questions related to the Trade Union Act 1926 to help you prepare for the exam.



Q1. For what the provisions are provided in the Trade union amendment Bill-2018?
Provisions for strikes, lockouts and layoffs.
Provisions regarding the formation of trade unions.
Provisions regarding the safety of trade union members.
Provisions for the statutory recognition of trade unions at central and state level
None of these
Solution:
The proposed amendment in the Trade union amendment Bill -2018 is a significant step in giving stronger statutory recognition to trade unions and granting them more teeth when negotiating for the rights of workmen with both employers as well as the Central and State governments.

Q2. Under which section particulars or rules of trade union are mentioned?
section 5
section 3
section 2
section 6
section 7
Solution:
Section 6 Provisions to be contained in the rules of a Trade Union. —A Trade Union shall not be entitled to registration under this Act, unless the executive thereof is constituted in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Q3. Within how many days a complaint has to be made in court for cognizance of offence?
6 months
3 months
1 month
2 months
1 year
Solution:
No Court shall take cognizance of any offence under this Act, unless complaint thereof has been made by, or with the previous sanction of, the Registrar or, in the case of an offence under section 32, by the person to whom the copy was given, within six months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.

Q4. Any trade union or the person(s) responsible continuously makes default in giving any notice or sending any statement or other document required under the act is fined with the maximum amount of_________________.
Rs.12
Rs.20
Rs.7
Rs.10
Rs.50
Solution:
If default is made on the part of any registered Trade Union in giving any notice or sending any statement or other document as required by or under any provision of this Act, every office-bearer or other person bound by the rules of the Trade Union to give or send the same, or, if there is no such office-bearer or person every member of the executive of the Trade Union, shall be punishable, with fine which may extend to five rupees and, in the case of a continuing default, with an additional fine which may extend to five rupees for each week after the first during which the default continues: Provided that the aggregate fine shall not exceed fifty rupees.

Q5. In case of any alterations or changes made in the rules, within how many days the notification of the same is sent to the registrar?
14 days
18 days
15 days
21 days
10 days
Solution:
A copy of every alteration made in the rules of a registered Trade Union shall be sent to the Registrar within fifteen days of the making of the alteration.

Q6. Any person willfully do false entry or omission in statement or alterations of rules sent to registrar is punishable with a fine upto_______________
Rs.500
Rs.100
Rs.1000
Rs.750
Rs.50
Solution:
Any person who wilfully makes, or causes to be made, any false entry in, or any omission from, the general statement required by section 28, or in or from any copy of rules or of alterations of rules sent to the Registrar under that section, shall be punishable with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees.

Q7. In case of change of name of trade union, who must sign the notice of that change and send it to the registrar?
Members and employer
All members
Seven members
Secretary
Secretary and seven members
Solution:
Notice in writing of every change of name, signed by the Secretary and by seven members of the Trade Union changing its name, shall be sent to the Registrar.

Q8. In case of amalgamation, what is the overall minimum percentage required for approval?
25%
75%
35%
60%
50%
Solution:
Any two or more registered Trade Unions may become amalgamated together as one Trade Union with or without dissolution or division of the funds of such Trade Unions or either or any of them, provided that the votes of at least one-half of the members of each or every such trade Union entitled to vote are recorded, and that at least sixty per cent of the votes recorded are in favour of the proposal.

Q9. Who is defined as a minor member in trade union act 1926?
Adult
Child
Adolescent
a person who has attained the age of 15 years
Both (c) and (d)
Solution:
Any person who has attained the age of fifteen years may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union to the contrary, and may, subject as aforesaid, enjoy all the rights of a member and execute all instruments and give all acquittances necessary to be executed or given under the rules.

Q10. A person will be disqualified for being chosen as an executive and office bearer of trade union who has not attained the age of ___________.
15 years
18 years
21 years
14 years
25 years
Solution:
A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the executive or any other office-bearer of a registered Trade Union if -
(i) he has not attained the age of eighteen years,
(ii) he has been convicted by a Court in India of any offence involving moral turpitude and sentenced to imprisonment, unless a period of five years has elapsed since his release.

Q11. Proportion of outsiders in office bearers in general case in trade unions act 1926 is ________________
one-third of total number of members or 5 whichever is less.
one-fifth of total number of members or 5 whichever is less.
one-third of total number of office bearers or 5 whichever is more.
one-third of total number of office bearers or 5 whichever is less.
None of these
Solution:
All office-bearers of a registered Trade Union, except not more than one-third of the total number of the office-bearers or five, whichever is less, shall be persons actually engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which the Trade Union is connected.

Q12. The payment from contribution to benefit workmen in general is subject to a maximum of one-fourth of ___________________.
Total gross income
Balance of credit of preceding year
Net income
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
Solution:
The payment, in furtherance of any of the objects on which the general funds of the Trade Union may be spent, of contributions to any cause intended to benefit workmen in general, provided that the expenditure in respect of such contributions in any financial year shall not at any time during that year be in excess of one-fourth of the combined total of the gross income which has up to that time accrued to the general funds of the Trade Union during that year and of the balance at the credit of those funds at the commencement of that year.

Q13. Notice of any change in the address of the head office shall be given within ____________________ of such change to the Registrar in writing.
14 days
15 days
18 days
21 days
10 days
Solution:
All communications and notices to a registered Trade Union may be addressed to its registered office. Notice of any change in the address of the head office shall be given within fourteen days of such change to the Registrar in writing, and the changed address shall be recorded in the register referred to in section 8.

Q14. Any person aggrieved by any refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade Union or by the withdrawal or cancellation of a certificate of registration may, within such period as may be prescribed, appeal______________________________ 
(I) High court near to its trade union head office 
(II) Industrial tribunal 
(III) Labour court 
(IV) National tribunal
Only (I)
Both (I) and (III)
Only (III)
Both (II) and (IV)
Only (I) (II) and (III)
Solution:
Any person aggrieved by any refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade Union or by the withdrawal or cancellation of a certificate of registration may, within such period as may be prescribed, appeal, -
(i) where the head office of the Trade Union is situated within the limits of a Presidency-town, to the High Court, or
(ii) where the head office is situated in any other area, to such Court, not inferior to the Court of an additional or assistant Judge of a principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction, as the appropriate Government may appoint in this behalf for that area.

Q15. Except under which of the following conditions, if a registrar is required to give a notice of reason of cancellation of registration?
on the application of trade union during verification in the prescribed manner.
when registrar is satisfied that certificate is taken by fraud or mistake.
when registrar is satisfied that trade union has ceased to have the requisite number of members.
Both (b) and (c)
All (a) (b) and (c)
Solution:
On the application of trade union during verification in the prescribed manner, a registrar is not required to give a notice of reason of cancellation of registration

               



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BA Study Kit: 5th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 9:23 am
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Dear Aspirants,


BA Study Kit: 03rd January 2019

Here is the Study Kit being provided by Bankersadda that incorporates the links to all the important updates that are posted on Bankersadda throughout the day. Every single post on Bankersadda is crucial for the banking aspirants throughout the country.


Through BA Study Kit, we ensure that you do not miss out any of the important updates that include English Quizzes, Quant Quizzes, Reasoning Quizzes, General Awareness Quizzes, Banking Awareness Quizzes, Current Affair Quizzes, Computer Quizzes, Job Alerts, all sorts of Recruitment and Results notifications, Frequently asked questions for various job profiles, Motivational as well as Examination Tips related articles, Interview Tips, Descriptive Writing Tips, Success Stories, Study Notes on important topics of all the subjects, and much more for IBPS PO and Clerk, SBI PO and Clerk,  RRB PO and Office Assistant, RBI Grade B Officer, Assistant and Attendant, and every other Banking Examination. Keep yourself updated and never miss out anything important with Bankersadda Study Kit!

1. IBPS Clerk Mains Admit Card 2018 Out | Download IBPS Clerk Call Letter

2. Current Affairs Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains: 5th January 2019

3. Time To Think - 5th January 2019

4. Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 5th January 2019

5. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 5th January 2019

6. IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon: 25 Days Study Plan- Day 11 | Download PDF

7. DAY 10 | Practice Marathon for IBPS Clerk Mains: REVISION | Quant, Reasoning & English

8. Error Detection for IBPS Clerk Mains: 5th January 2019

9. IBPS Clerk Mains 2018 Prime Online Test Series Package

10. IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon Free PDF | Day 1 - Day 9

11. Current Affairs Weekly bulletin | 1st to 5th January 2019 | From | Ritu mam | 10 am

12. Upcoming Jobs in 2019 | अच्छा ही हुआ जो clerk में नहीं हुआ | Vishal Sir & Anil Sir

13. Reasoning Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 5th January 2019

14. Bihar State Co-operative Assistant Manager Prelims Exam Analysis, Review: 05th January 2019

15. Only Two Weeks Left | Practice Hard To Crack IBPS Clerk Mains Exam 2018-19

16. IBPS Clerk Mains GA Power Capsule | Download PDF

17. Current Affairs 5th January 2019: Daily GK Update 

18. Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 5th January 2019

19. English Language Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims Exam - 5th January 2019

20. Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 5th January 2019

21. IBPS SO 2018 Professional Knowledge Quiz for HR | Trade Union Act 1926



The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

                                   
        










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TIme To Think - 6th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 7:30 pm
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"I don't measure a man's success by how high he climbs, but how high he bounces when he hits bottom."



A man’s success is not measured by how much he has achieved in his life. It is measured by how greatly one comes back when he has fallen down to the bottom.  When a person has failed in his life and if he does not loose his strength and comes up again achieving even more greater heights, this strength is his real measure for success. Never loose hope in life and learn from your failure. This will help you achieve greater things in life. Failure is a part of success and if you fail, don’t loose hope. Infact, come up with more zeal and passion for your dreams. 

What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!

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Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 6th January 2019

January 5, 2019, 9:33 pm
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Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.

1. STRIDE (noun) छलाँग
Meaning: A long step or stage in making progress.
Synonyms: clump, tramp, stomp, stalk.
Antonyms: amble, meander, ramble, wander.
Usage: In two bounding strides the woman was in the street, kneeling over her friend.

2. VEXATIOUS (adjective) कष्टकर
Meaning: Causing or tending to cause annoyance, frustration, or worry.
Synonyms: annoying, irksome, infuriating, exasperating.
Antonyms: pleasing, soothing, aiding, assisting.
Usage: This vexatious problem was resolved, incompletely, by civil war and secession.

3. STODGY (adjective) मैला-कुचैला
Meaning: Dull and uninspired; lacking originality or excitement.
Synonyms: uninteresting, uninspired, monotonous, humdrum.
Antonyms: exciting, entertaining, breathtaking, enthralling.
Usage: Most of my students used informal, asymmetrical balance, as formal balance can seem stodgy and dull.

4. DODDER (verb) डगमगाना
Meaning: tremble or totter, typically because of old age.
Synonyms: stumble, stagger, sway, lurch.
Antonyms: steady, fix, stay, still, remain.
Usage: The old woman doddered from the bed to the table.

5. AGAPE (adjective) भौंचक्का
Meaning: (of a person’s mouth) wide open in surprise or wonder.
Synonyms: agog, breathless, enthusiastic, raring.
Antonyms: apathetic, indifferent, unimpressed, uninterested.
Usage: When I first saw the sunset in the Grand Canyon, I could only stand staring with my mouth agape.

6. TORPOR (noun) उदासीनता
Meaning: a state of physical or mental inactivity; lethargy.
Synonyms: listlessness, languor, stagnation, idleness.
Antonyms: eagerness, keenness, spiritedness, vigor.
Usage: During the winter, the bears fall into an intense torpor.

7. PRECARIOUS (adjective): अनिश्चित
Meaning: dependent on chance; uncertain.
Synonyms: unsure, unpredictable, doubtful, dubious.
Antonyms: certain, stable, confirmed, definite.
Usage: As Finance Secretary I found that the finances of the state were in a precarious condition.

8. CONFABULATE (verb): बातचीत करना
Meaning: to talk informally.
Synonyms: chitchat, gossip, patter, schmooze.
Antonyms: be silent, be quiet, listen.
Usage: Guests gathered in the hallway to confabulate about the weather and make small talk.

9. EERIE (adjective): भयग्रस्त
Meaning: strange and frightening.
Synonyms: sinister, ghostly, creepy, haunting.
Antonyms: normal, ordinary, prosaic, routine.
Usage: An eerie feeling came over us as we watched the scary movie.

10. SUCCINCTLY (adverb): संक्षेप में
Meaning: in a way that expresses what needs to be said clearly and without unnecessary words.
Synonyms: brief, compendious, concise, terse.
Antonyms: circumlocutory, diffuse, long-winded, prolix.


Usage: The reviewer’s remarks were succinct and to the point.

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Crack Your IBPS Clerk Mains Exam with Live Batches of Adda247

January 5, 2019, 10:58 pm
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Dear Students, every year IBPS conducts so many banking examinations to carry out the recruitment processes for employees at different scales. When it comes to IBPS Clerk Examination, one has to go through two levels of examinations before she gets a job in a Public Sector Bank of India. Mains examination, being the second and final step of this examination for IBPS Clerk, is comparatively difficult and hard to crack. 

Mains exams do play a major role in a candidate's final selections as the marks of mains exam are counted in the preparation of final merit list. How you perform in the mains examination can make a big difference in your final results, in a good way or in a bad way. Many of you must be wondering what could be the best way to perform to the best of your ability during the mains level of IBPS Clerk examination. To help you ace this examination, Adda247 brings to you online batches for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam. 

There are students who are not able to clear the concepts on their own and want to join coaching classes for the same. The Online Batches are specially brought up for those who are not able to join classroom programs due to certain reasons. Also, a huge number of students apply and appear for competitive examinations every year and that's the reason why the fight to get through it is real tough. It's like shape up or ship out, so students, start off your preparations right away. And all that you need to make the cut is proper guidance so you can stride ahead in the right direction. The online batches by Adda247 are there to tide you over, subscribe to them while the going is good.



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IBPS Clerk Mains GA Power Capsule | Download PDF

January 6, 2019, 12:28 am
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ibos-clerk-main-ga-power-capsule

Dear Students, Adda247 is here with this month's G.A. Power Capsule (21st July'18 to 4th Jan'19) for the upcoming banking examinations prepared by our GA whizzes Gopal Sir and team. This capsule is intended towards helping the banking aspirants throughout the country know the ins and outs of the general awareness with the help of important key points that are asked in the banking examinations.

General Awareness, is an integral part of most of the banking examinations conducted by IBPS. Now that the IBPS Clerk Mains, Lakshmi Vilas Bank and other banking exams are queued up to be held in the upcoming months, one should make sure that her grip over this subject is strong enough to get it made.

It's easy for one to attempt a great number of questions in this section as you don't need to perform complex calculations to get to the correct option. You just need to read through the questions and keep marking the correct options provided it is prepared well enough.

Scoring good marks in this here will not only help you qualify the sectional cut off for the section but also adds up to your overall score and thus helping you sail through the exam you will appear for. So students, get the Adda247 GA Power Capsule and bring the house down this time!!



Download GA Power Capsule for IBPS CLERK Mains 2018-19 

For any doubts or queries send an email to gopal.anand@adda247.com 
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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 6th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 12:58 am
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Dear Students,
Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Mains: 6th January 2019


Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS Clerk Main

If talked about banking exams, Quant Section is considered to be one of the most difficult sections and so, gives heebie-jeebies to many. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming and if you do not practice it well, it can make your blood run cold during the exam. The IBPS Clerk Mains Exam is scheduled to be held on the 20th of January 2019. Adda247 is here with "Practice Marathon for Clerk Mains 2018" with practice questions on all the topics that are likely to be asked in the exam. Today is Day 10 of IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Marathon, attempt the quiz and win this marathon against lakhs of IBPS Clerk Candidates.




Directions (1-5): In the following questions two quantities are given for each question. Compare the numeric value of both the quantities and answers accordingly. 

Q1. ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together can complete a work in 48 days if they work alternatively. ‘A’ is 25% more efficient than ‘B’ who isless efficient than ‘C’. Quantity I: Difference between days taken by ‘A’ alone and ‘C’ alone to complete the work. Quantity II: Days in which ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together can complete half of the work.
Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Solution:

Q2. Neeraj invested Rs. X in two different schemes ‘A’ and ‘B’ equally. Scheme A offers 10% p.a. at S.I and scheme B offers 20% p.a. at C.I. After 2 years he got total Rs.2560 interest from both the schemes. Quantity I: Value of ‘X’ Quantity II: Rs. 7200
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Solution:

Q3. Three partners invested capital in the ratio 2 : 7 : 9. The time period for which each of them invested was in the ratio of the reciprocals of the amount invested.. Quantity I: Profit share of the partner who brought in the highest capital if the profit is Rs. 1080 Quantity II: Profit share of the partner who brought in the lowest capital if the profit is Rs. 1080
Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Solution:

Q4. X started from a point A towards point B. After 2 hours. Y started from B towards A. By the time X travelled one-fifth of the total distance, Y had also travelled the same. Y’s speed is thrice of that of X’s speed. Quantity I: Difference in time (in hours) taken by X and Y to reach their respective destinations. Quantity II: 12 hours
Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I > Quantity II
Solution:

Q5. A vessel contains 2.5 litres of water and 10 litres of milk. 20% of the contents of the vessel are removed. To the remaining contents, x litres of water is added to reverse the ratio of water and milk. Then y litres of milk is added again to reverse the ratio of water and milk. Quantity I: Value of ‘y’ Quantity II: Value of ‘x’
Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I > Quantity II
Solution:

Q6. A shopkeeper buys 144 items at 90 paise each. On the way 20 items are broken. He sells the remainder at Rs. 1.20 each. His gain per cent correct to one place of decimal is
13.8%
14.6%
14.8%
15.8%
None of these
Solution:

Q7. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 2 : 3. If 25% of the boys and 30% of the girls are scholarship holders, the percentage of the school students who are not scholarship holders is
72%
36%
54%
60%
None of these
Solution:

Q8. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 km upstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hours and 30 minutes. The speed of the boat in still water is
8 km/hr
9 km/hr
12 km/hr
10 km/hr
None of these
Solution:

Q9. A takes three times as long as B and C together to do a job. B takes four times as long as A and C together to do the work. If all the three, working together can complete the job in 24 days, then the number of days, A alone will take to finish the job is
100
96
95
90
None of these
Solution:

Q10. 20 litres of a mixture contains 20% alcohol and the rest water. If 4 litres of water be mixed in it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be

Solution:

Directions (11-15): In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer: 

Q11. I. x² – 9x + 18 = 0
II. 5y² – 22y + 24 = 0
if x < y
if x > y
if x ≤ y
if x ≥ y
if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Solution:
I. x² – 9x + 18 = 0
x² – 6x – 3x + 18 = 0
x (x – 6) –3 (x -6) = 0
(x – 3) (x – 6) = 0
x= 3, 6
II. 5y² – 22y + 24 = 0
5y² – 10y – 12y + 24 = 0
5y (y- 2) –12 (y – 2) = 0
(y – 2) (5y – 12) = 0
y=2, 12/5
∴ x > y

Q12. I. 6x² + 11x + 5 = 0 
II. 2y² + 5y + 3 = 0
 if x < y
 if x > y
 if x ≤ y
 if x ≥ y
 if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Solution:
I. 6x² + 11x + 5 = 0
6x² + 6x + 5x + 5 = 0
6x (x + 1) + 5 (x + 1) = 0
(x+ 1) (6x +5) = 0
x = -1,-5/6
II. 2y² + 5y + 3 = 0
2y² + 2y + 3y + 3 = 0
2y (y+ 1) + 3 (y+ 1) = 0
(y+ 1) (2y + 3) = 0
y= -1,-3/2
∴x≥y

Q13. I. x² + 10x + 24 = 0 
II. y² – √625=0
 if x < y
 if x > y
 if x ≤ y
 if x ≥ y
 if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Solution:
I. x² + 10x + 24 = 0
x² +6x + 4x + 24 = 0
x (x + 6) +4 (x+ 6) = 0
(x + 4) (x + 6) = 0
x = –4, –6
II. y² – √625=0
y²=√625
y²=25;
y= ±5
∴ Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

Q14. I. 10x² + 11x + 1 = 0 
II. 15y² + 8y + 1 = 0
 if x < y
 if x > y
 if x ≤ y
 if x ≥ y
 if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Solution:
I. 10x² +11x + 1= 0
10x² + 10x+ x+ 1 = 0
10x (x + 1) + 1 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1) (10x + 1) = 0
x= -1,-1/10
II. 15y² + 8y + 1 = 0
15y² +5y + 3y + 1 = 0
5y (3y + 1) + 1 (3y+ 1) = 0
(3y + 1) (5y + 1) = 0
 y=-1/3,-1/5
∴ Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

Q15. I.15x² – 11x + 2 = 0 
II. 10y² – 9y + 2 = 0
 if x < y
 if x > y
 if x ≤ y
 if x ≥ y
 if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Solution:
I. 15x² – 11x + 2 = 0
15x² – 5x – 6x + 2 = 0
5x (3x – 1) – 2 (3x – 1) = 0
(3x – 1) (5x – 2) = 0
x=1/3,2/5
II. 10y² – 9y + 2 = 0
10y² – 5y – 4y + 2 = 0
5y (2y – 1) –2 (2y – 1) = 0
(2y – 1) (5y - 2) = 0
y = 1/2,2/5
∴ x ≤ y

               






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Reasoning Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 6th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 2:56 am
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Reasoning Questions for NIACL AO 2019

Reasoning Ability is an onerous section. With the increasing complexity of questions, it becomes hard for one to give it the cold shoulder. The only way to make the grade in this particular section in the forthcoming banking exams like NIACL AO Prelims is to practice continuously with all your heart and soul. And, to let you practice with the best of the latest pattern questions, here is the Adda247 Reasoning Quiz based on the exact same pattern of questions that are being asked in the exams.




Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below. 

Eight persons G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N lives on eight different floors from bottom to top such as ground floor is numbered as 1 and top floor is numbered as 8. I lives on an even number floor. Only three persons live between I and J. Only one person lives between N and K and both live on an odd number floor and both of them live above I. Two persons live between G and H, who live on even number floor. G does not live on ground floor. Both M and L lives below G. M does not live on ground floor. N lives above H.

Q1. Who among the following lives on top floor?
G
M
H
J
None of these
Solution:

Q2. H lives on which among the following floor?
3rd
2nd
4th
6th
None of these
Solution:

Q3. How many persons live between N and G?
One
Three
Two
Four
None of these
Solution:

Q4. Who among the following lives on ground floor?
I
L
N
J
None of these
Solution:

Q5. Which of the following is true according to the arrangement?
H-4th floor
K-3rd floor
I-1st floor
M-2nd floor
N-6th floor
Solution:

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: 

Eight-person H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the center while some others are facing outward.

H sits third to the right of I. N sits second to the right of K. O sits second to the left of N. O is an immediate neighbor of both J and L. M sits second to the left of L. H sits second to the left of J. K faces the center. O faces the same direction as L. I sits third to the right of H. J sits second to the right of L. M faces the same direction as O.

Q6. Who sits exactly between N and O, when counted from the left of N?
H
J
L
I
K
Solution:

Q7. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?
One
Three
Five
Four
Can’t be determined
Solution:

Q8. Who sits second to the right of I?
M
N
K
O
Other than the given options
Solution:

Q9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does that belong to that group?
O
J
N
H
L
Solution:

Q10. What is H’s position with respect to O?
Second to the left
Third to the right
Third to the left
Fifth to the right
Fourth to the right
Solution:

Directions (11-15): Some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer- 

Q11. Statements: 
Some Google is Twitter.
No Twitter is Facebook.
All Facebook are WhatsApp.
Conclusions: 
I. Some WhatsApp are Google is a possibility.
II. Some Twitter can never be Facebook.
if only conclusion I follows
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
if both conclusions I and II follow
Solution:

Q12. Statements: 
All phones are charger.
No charger is earphone.
No earphone is headphone.
Conclusion: 
I. Some phones are not earphone.
II. Some headphone can never be charger.
if only conclusion I follows
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
if both conclusions I and II follow
Solution:

Q13. Statements: 
No one is two.
All two are three.
All three are four.
Conclusions: 
I. Some four are two is a possibility.
II. No three is one.
if only conclusion I follows
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
if both conclusions I and II follow
Solution:

Q14. Statements: 
Some Milk is Tea.
Some Tea is Coffee.
No Coffee is Sugar.
Conclusions: 
I. Some Tea can never be Sugar.
II. Some Milk are Coffee.
if only conclusion I follows
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
if both conclusions I and II follow
Solution:

Q15. Statements: 
All Argon are Neon.
All Xenon are Neon.
No Xenon is Radon.
Conclusions: 
I. Some Argon are Xenon.
II. Some Neon are not Radon.
if only conclusion I follows
if only conclusion II follows
if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
if both conclusions I and II follow
Solution:

               





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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims: 6th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 5:59 am
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Dear Aspirants,



Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For NIACL AO

Numerical Ability or Quantitative Aptitude Section has given heebie-jeebies to the aspirants when they appear for a banking examination. As the level of every other section is only getting complex and convoluted, there is no doubt that this section, too, makes your blood run cold. The questions asked in this section are calculative and very time-consuming. But once dealt with proper strategy, speed, and accuracy, this section can get you the maximum marks in the examination. Following is the Quantitative Aptitude quiz to help you practice with the best of latest pattern questions

Directions (1-5): Study the bar-graph and table given below carefully and answer the question accordingly. Bar-graph shows the number of people in five different cities and table shows the percentage of male in five cities and the ratio of literate and illiterate people in five different cities.

Q1. If 40 percent of male from city K went to city L then what is the total number of males in city L ?
(a) 17200
(b) 19200
(c) 16200
(d) 18200
(e) None of these

Q2. What is the percentage of literate people from city L to the illiterate people from city M?
(a) 52.5%
(b) 72.5%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 42.5%
(e) None of these

Q3. If 30 percent of male from city M are illiterate. Then find the ratio of illiterate male to the illiterate female from city   M?
(a) 21 : 259
(b) 21 : 269
(c) 22 : 259
(d) 23 : 259
(e) None of these

Q4. What is the average of illiterate people in five cities?
(a) 25000
(b) 20400
(c) 21000
(d) 23000
(e) None of these

Q5. What is the ratio of total females from city M and O to the total illiterate males from city K and city L?
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 5 : 7
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q6. Two boats, traveling at 5 and 10 km per hour, head directly towards each other. They begin at a distance 20 km from each other. How far apart are they (in kms) one minute before they collide?
(a) 0.35 km
(b) 0.65 km
(c) 0.45 km
(d) 0.25 km
(e) None of these

Q7. A banker lends 2000 rupees to a customer. The rate of interest for the first year is x%, for the second year it is (x+2)%, for the third year it is (x+4)% and so on. At the end of the fifth year if the total interest accrued is Rs. 1500, find the value of x.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 11
(d) 14
(e) None of these

Q8. A merchant mixes three varieties of rice costing Rs.20/kg, Rs.24/kg and Rs.30/kg and sells the mixture at a profit of 20% at Rs.30/kg. How many kg of the second variety will be in the mixture if 2 kg of the third variety is present in the mixture?( all three varieties are taken in some positive integer values)
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
(e) None of these

Q9. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘KAKA’ be arranged so that no two vowels are together?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) None of these

Q10. A, B and C start simultaneously from X to Y. A reaches Y, turns back and meet B at a distance of 11 km from Y. B reached Y, turns back and meet C at a distance of 9 km from Y. If the ratio of the speeds of A and C is 3:2, what is the distance between X and Y?
(a) 108
(b) 198
(c) 90
(d) 99
(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): What value should come in place of (?) in the following questions? 



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January 6, 2019, 6:47 am
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Error Detection Quiz for NIACL AO Prelims- 6th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 7:13 am
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Dear Aspirants, 


English Quiz For NIACL AO Prelims 


NIACL AO Exam is on its way and a lot of aspirants are heading towards new hopes with this upcoming opportunity. Thus, the English Language can be an impetus for their success by helping them save crucial time and score good points in lesser time and effort. So, instead of boiling the ocean, try building up a strong vocabulary, an effective knowledge of grammar, and efficient comprehension skills so as to be on the ball to face this particular section. Here is a quiz on English Language being provided by Adda247 to let you practice the best of latest pattern English Questions for upcoming NIACL AO Exam.






Directions (1-10): In each of the following questions a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is given and four words are put in BOLD. One of these four words may be misspelt or contextually wrong. You have to identify the misspelt or contextually wrong word and choose the appropriate option as your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer. 

Q1. Maria is not often dishonest, but she will lie to protect herself friends.
is
dishonest
will
herself
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘her’ in place of ‘herself’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q2. Intelligence and passion overruled the woman’s smooth talk glibness, as everyone saw right through her superficiality.
and
woman’s
talk
through
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘talking’ in place of ‘talk’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q3. The judge’s decision seemed biased since he ruled in favor of his childhood friend without ever hearing the evidence.
decision
ruled
childhood
the
No error
Solution:
No error

Q4. Amelia’s head was filled with dreamy thoughts, caused her to become distracted even when driving.
was
dreamy
caused
distracted
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘causing’ in place of ‘caused’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q5. The overpowering fragrance was implpable, but it still managed to tickle my throat and make me cough.
overpowering
implpable
tickle
make
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘impalpable’ in place of ‘implpable’. Impalpable means unable to be felt by touch.

Q6. If a king has a son with one other than his wife, that son is illegitimate and cannot take the throne if his father passes.
has
one
illegitimate
his
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘someone’ in place of ‘one’. Someone is used while referring to a random person who is not known.

Q7. I don’t care for the speed sensitive volume control feature in my car because the music will fade when I come at a complete stop.
speed
feature
will
at
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘to’ in place of ‘at’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q8. They didn’t want to diminish my work, but they had decided to publish other article in the paper.
didn’t
diminish
decided
other
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘another’ in place of ‘other’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If we would have ‘other’ here it was necessary to use ‘the’ along with it.

Q9. He is solely in charge of the production line, and he has all responsibilities outside of that at all.
solely
production
all
that
No error
Solution:
It should be ‘no’ in place of ‘all’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q10. There was only a minimal chance of acquiring the contagious disease since everyone had been completely vaccinated with the most recent medication.
minimal
contagious
been
vaccinated
No error
Solution:
No error

Directions (11-15): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If no such error is there, mark (e) as your answer. 

Q11. Since the children were already struggling (A)/ with learning, the move of a new school (B)/ should present as minimal changes as possible (C)/ so it would not cause additional problems for the children. (D)/
A
B
C
D
No error
Solution:
In part B, it should be ‘to’ in place of ‘of’.

Q12. People predicted the Internet (A)/ would erode the future of (B)/ newspapers, and in (C)/ the most part, they were correct. (D)/
A
B
C
D
No error
Solution:
In part C, it should be ‘for’ in place of ‘in’.

Q13. Although the director loved (A)/ all of his film footage, he (B)/ had to truncated the movie so its runtime (C)/ would be less than forty-five minutes. (D)/
C
A
D
B
No error
Solution:
In part C, it should be ‘truncated’ in place of ‘truncate’. We cannot use two verbs in past tense together that is ‘had’ and ‘truncated’ .

Q14. The storm brought the (A)/ baseball game to a halt (B)/ and than subsided enough (C)/ for the players to retake the field. (D)/
A
B
D
C
No error
Solution:
In part C, it should be ‘then’ in place of ‘than’. Than is used for comparison.

Q15. While the trees hovered overhead, only (A)/ the hikers walking on the floor (B)/ of the Amazon Rainforest could (C)/ observe the undergrowth growing close to the ground. (D)/
A
B
C
D
No error
Solution:
No error

               




         


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Time To Think: 7th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 9:15 pm
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Success is just a pile of failures that you are standing on top of.

When we strive for something we want to achieve, we are bound to fail, once, twice or many more times. Every failure is an outcome of either a mistake or ignorance. And when this process is repeated over and over, our mind creates a checklist of the things that are constantly leading to our downfall. Eventually, we stop erring at all and that's what catapults us to the destination we wanted to arrive at. 

What do you think? Share your thoughts in the comments!!

    

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Daily Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 7th January 2019

January 6, 2019, 9:14 pm
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Vocabulary is an important part of English that helps you deal with all kinds of questions in objective as well as descriptive papers of various exams. In the recently concluded Banking Exams, we witnessed that a major part of the exam was based on vocabulary. Many questions were vocab based and we can expect the same in the upcoming exams. It becomes very important to learn ample amount of words for the upcoming Government Job Exams. You can learn new words daily from our Daily Word List . Here is a list of words from daily Editorials. Learn the words and make your own sentences on the basis of the given word list.

1. INDELIBLE (adjective) : अमार्जनीय
Meaning: not able to be forgotten.
Synonyms: ineradicable, enduring, stubborn, permanent
Antonyms: delible, destructible, erasable, impermanent
Example: The blood had left an indelible mark on her shirt.

2. TEDIOUS (adjective) : उकतानेवाला
Meaning: too long, slow, or dull; tiresome or monotonous.
Synonyms: dull, unexciting, unvaried, mundane
Antonyms: exciting, interesting
Example: The meeting was so long and tedious, he was ready to climb the wall.

3. PROWESS (noun) : कौशल
Meaning: skill or expertise in a particular activity or field.
Synonyms: skill, expertise, ability, ability
Antonyms: inability, ineptitude
Example: He was famous for his prowess as an athlete.

4. PETULANT (adjective) : ढीठ
Meaning: (of a person or their manner) childishly sulky or bad-tempered.
Synonyms: cranky, fractious, irritable, perverse
Antonyms: agreeable, cheerful, patient, willing
Example: I was made to feel like a petulant child who has flown into a temper because his favorite toy was removed.

5. BYZANTINE (adjective) : पेचीदा
Meaning: (of a system or situation) excessively complicated, and typically involving a great deal of administrative detail
Synonyms: daedal, complicated, convoluted, devious
Example: They are built on the Byzantine pattern, in small scale, and have painted fresco decoration.

6. BUCOLIC (adjective) : ग्राम्य
Meaning: relating to the pleasant aspects of the countryside and country life.
Synonyms: rustic, rural, pastoral, country
Antonyms: urban
Example: There was a certain bucolic look to the faces of the cart drivers.

7. LAUDABLE (adjective) : प्रशंसनीय
Meaning: (of an action, idea, or aim) deserving praise and commendation.
Synonyms: praiseworthy, commendable, admirable, meritorious
Example: Faith ceases to be laudable when it is blind faith.

8. RAPACIOUS (adjective) : अति लोलुप
Meaning: aggressively greedy or grasping.
Synonyms: grasping, greedy, avaricious, acquisitive
Antonyms: generous
Example: It was a horrendous, rapacious strategy that they had used to gain control of their own home system.

9. BOLSTER (verb) : आधार, सहारा
Meaning: support or strengthen.
Synonyms: strengthen, support, reinforce, boost
Antonyms: undermine
Example: He is making a bold attempt to bolster the territory's confidence.

10. GERMANE (adjective) : सार्थक
Meaning: relevant to a subject under consideration.
Synonyms: relevant, pertinent, applicable, apposite
Antonyms: irrelevant
Example: He asks questions that are germane and central to the issue

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IBPS CLERK MAINS | “STATEMENTS AND ASSUMPTIONS” | REASONING | Magic of Logic | Part 2 |

January 6, 2019, 10:49 pm
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Check PRIME Offers on Test Series. Bank | SSC | Insurance | Combo Prime 


IBPS CLERK MAINS | English Vinglish | Most Important Tips For Fillers | Anchal Ma'am | Day 5



7th Jan 2019 | The Hindu | The Editorial Today | Editorial Discussion & Analysis | Vishal Sir




Current Affairs 6-7TH JAN 2019 MCQ | SSC, RBI, SBI, IBPS, Railway, KVS, Police


The pain you feel today is the strength you will feel tomorrow. For every challenge encountered, there is an opportunity for growth. 

           
        
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